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Exam Code: 070-181
Exam Name: Microsoft (TS: Forefront Protection for Endpoints & Apps, Configuring)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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Exam Code: 070-511-VB
Exam Name: Microsoft (TS:Windows Apps Dev w/Microsoft .NET Framework 4)
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Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You use Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation
(WPF) application. You write the following code fragment.
<StackPanel TextBox.PceviewTextInput="StackPanel_PreviewTextInput">
<TextBox Name="TxtBoxA"/>
<TextBox Name-"TxtBoxB"/>
<TextBox Naroe-"TxtBoxC"/>
</StackPanel>
You create an event handler named StackPanel_PreviewTextInput. You also have a
collection of strings named Keywords. You need to ensure that TxtBoxA and TxtBoxB
do not contain any of the strings in the Keywords collections. Which code segment
should you use?
A. Private Sub StackPanel_PreviewTextInput(sender As Ctoject, e
AsTextCompositionEventArgs) Dim feSource As FrameworkElement = TryCast(sender,
FrameworkElement)
If feSource.Name - "TxtBoxA" OrElse feSource.Name - "TxtBoxB" Then
For Each keyword As String In Keywords
If e.Text.Contains(keyword) Then
B. Handled = False
Return End If Next
C. Handled = True
End If
End Sub
D. Private Sub StackPanel_PreviewTextInput(sender As Object e As
TextCompositionEventArgs) Dim feSource As FrameworkElement = TryCast(e.Source,
FrameworkElement)
If feSource.Name = "TxtBoxA" OrElse feSource.Name = "TxtBoxB" Then
For Each keyword As String In Keywords
If e.Text.Contains(keyword) Then e.HandledFalse Return
End If
Next
E. Handled = True
End If
End Sub
F. Private Sub StackPanel_PreviewTextInput(sender As Object, e As
TextCompositionEventArgs) Dim feSource As FrameworkElement = TryCast(sender,
FraroeworkElement)
If feSource.Name = "TxtBoxA" OrElse feSource.Name = "TxtBoxB" Then
For Each keyword As String In Keywords
If e.Text.Contains(keyword) Then e.Handled = True Return
End If
Next
G. Handled = False
End If
End Sub
H. Private Sub StackPanel_PreviewTextInput(sender As Ctoject, e As
TextCompositionEventArgs) Dim feSource As FrameworkElement = TryCast(e.Source,
FrameworkElement)
If feSource.Name = "TxtBoxA" OrElse feSource.Name = "TxtBoxB" Then
For Each keyword As String In Keywords
If e.Text.Contains(keyword) Then e.Handled = True
Return End If Next
I. Handled = False
End If
End Sub
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are developing a user control for a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF)
application. The user control contains a button. Both the user control and the hosting
control must receive the button click event. You need to ensure that the user control
responds to the button click event before the hosting control responds to the event. What
should you do?
A. Use a bubbling routed event. In the button click event handler, set the Handled
property to True.
B. Use a bubbling routed event. In the button click event handler, set the Handled
property to False.
C. Use a standard Microsoft .NET event. Set the Handled property to True.
D. Use a tunneling routed event. Set the Handled property to False.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are developing a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application. You have
the following style defined in the app.xaml file.
<Style x:Key="btnItalic" x:Name="styIeItalic"
TargetType="{ x:Type Button}">
Setter Property="FontStyle" Value="Itallc"/> </Style>
You need to apply this style to a button named buttonl in the application at run time.
Which code segment should you use?
A. button1.Style = TryCast(Me.FindName("styleItallc"),Style)
B. button1.Style = TryCast(Me.FindName("btnItalic"), Style)
C. button1.Style =
TryCast(Me.FindResource("btnItalic"), Style)
D. button1.Style = TryCast(Me.FindResource("styleItalic"), Style)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MB5-700
Exam Name: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics C5 2012 Application Consultant)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement about modifying the appearance of the main menus is true?
A. You can add or delete both custom and built-in rows and columns.
B. You can add or delete only custom rows.
C. You can add or delete only custom columns.
D. You can add only custom rows or columns. You can delete only custom rows and columns.
Answer: D

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NO.2 To which two applications can reports be printed by using the Print20ffice functionality? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Microsoft PowerPoint
B. Microsoft Publisher
C. Microsoft OneNote
D. Microsoft Word
E. Microsoft Access
F. Microsoft Excel
Answer: D,F

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Explanation:
Word, Excel, and PDF format.

NO.3 Which command will launch the Microsoft Dynamics C5 native application and display the
c5Menu.OWN menu?
A. C5W32.exe -mOWN
B. C5W32.exe/OWN
C. C5W32.exe -menuOWN
D. C5W32.exe -OWNmenu
Answer: C

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NO.4 A report definition includes a range of values for four table fields. It also specifies four table
fields in the Sort dialog.
The value of the Level field is set to 2.
When are subtotals calculated in the report?
A. Each time the value of the second sort field changes
B. Each time the value of the second table field changes
C. Each time the value of the first and second sort fields change
D. Each time the value of the first and second table fields change
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about password management within the Microsoft Dynamics C5
application is true?
A. Passwords cannot be changed for any users from within the Microsoft Dynamics C5 application.
B. The password can be changed only for the supervisor account.
C. Passwords can be changed for all users except the supervisor account.
D. Passwords can be changed for all users including the supervisor account.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You use the Report generator to create a report that includes the name and email address of
alt customers.
Which field type should you specify for the customer name and email address?
A. DB
B. REAL
C. BLANK
D. STR
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have a file that contains an account number and email addresses for all customers.
You must use the file to ensure that an email address is entered in the Customers table for each
customer. You add the account number and email address to the fields list in the Data manipulation
dialog box.
Which value should you select for the Action property?
A. INSERT
B. IMPORT/UPDATE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement about the Print2Office functionality is true?
A. Only invoices and credit notes can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
B. Reports cannot be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
C. Only reports saved in the Invoice/ Document journals on customers and vendors can besentas
PDF attachments to email messages.
D. All reports can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does the 5HIFT+ALT+F4 keyboard shortcut do in the customer table?
A. Finds the customer who has received a certain invoice number
B. Filters the records in the customer table
C. Jumps to the Search for field where you can enter search criteria
D. Finds one or more customers by using name or search name
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Microsoft Dynamics C5 application is installed in a network domain environment
You need to add a user to the application.
Which syntax should you use when specifying the user name?
A. domain@username
B. domain/username
C. domain\username
D. domain.username
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-492
Exam Name: Microsoft (Upgrade your MCPD: Web Developer 4 to MCSD: Web Applications)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
You need to authenticate clients by using NT LAN Manager (NTLM).
Which authentication method should you implement?
A. Basic
B. Windows
C. Forms
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL
Server database. You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are testing an ASP .NET application.
The test plan requires that tests run against the application's business layer. You need to use the test
project template that meets this requirement. Which template should you use?
A. Web Test Project
B. Load Test Project
C. Unit Test Project
D. Coded Test Project
Answer: C

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012.
The application has a model named ReservationLocation that contains properties named City and
State.
The view that displays reservations has a single text box named loc for entering the location
information. The location is entered as city, state.
There are action methods that have ReservationLocation as a parameter type. You need to ensure
that the City and State properties are correctly populated.
How should you implement model binding for the ReservationLocation type? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.)
Answer:

NO.5 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated
permissions required to deploy the application to the servers.
You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that displays stock market information.
The stock market information updates frequently and must be displayed in real-time.
You need to eliminate unnecessary header data, minimize latency, and transmit data over a
full-duplex connection.
What should you do?
A. Implement long-running HTTP requests.
B. Instantiate a MessageChannel object on the client.
C. Implement WebSockets protocol on the client and the server.
D. Configure polling from the browser.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012. The application
requires several thousand content files. All content is hosted on the same IIS instance as the
application.
You detect performance issues when the application starts.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Implement HTTP caching in the ASP .NET MVC controllers.
B. Combine the content files by using ASP .NET MVC bundling.
C. Install a second IIS instance.
D. Move the content to a Windows Azure CDN.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are designing an HTML5 website.
You need to design the interface to make the content of the web page viewable in all types of
browsers, including voice recognition software, screen readers, and reading pens.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Annotate HTML5 content elements with Accessible Rich Internet Application (ARIA) attributes.
B. Convert HTML5 forms to XForms.
C. Ensure that HTML5 content elements have valid and descriptive names.
D. Use HTML5 semantic markup elements to enhance the pages.
E. Use Resource Description Framework (RDF) to describe content elements throughout the entire
page.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 You are developing a WCF service.
A new service instance must be created for each client session.
You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application. The application is deployed in a web farm
and is accessed by many users.
The application must handle web server failures gracefully. The servers in the farm must share the
state information.
You need to persist the application state during the session.
What should you implement?
A. A state server
B. Cookieless sessions
C. A web garden on the web servers
D. An InProc session
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application for viewing a list of contacts. The
application is designed for devices that support changes in orientation, such as tablets and
smartphones. The application displays a grid of contact tiles in portrait mode.
When the orientation changes to landscape, each tile in the grid expands to include each contact's
details. The HTML that creates the tiled interface resembles the following markup.
The CSS used to style the tiles in landscape mode is as follows.
If this CSS is omitted, the existing CSS displays the tiles in portrait mode.
You need to update the landscape-mode CSS to apply only to screens with a width greater than or
equal to 500 pixels.
Which code segment should you use?
A. @media screen and (width >= 500px) {
. . .
}
B. @media screen and (min-width: 500px) {
. . . }
C. @media screen (min-width: 500px, max-width: 1000px) {
. . .
}
D. @media resolution (min-width: 500px) {
. . .
}
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are authoring unit tests.
The unit tests must test code that consumes sealed classes.
You need to create, maintain, and inject dependencies in the unit tests.
Which isolation method should you use?
A. T4 text templates and code generation
B. Stub types
C. Shim types
D. Hard-coded implementation
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application by using Visual Studio 2012.
The application throws and handles exceptions when it runs.
You need to examine the state of the application when exceptions are thrown.
What should you do?
A. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Enable the Thrown
check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
B. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Disable the User-
unhandled check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
C. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="500" redirect="CustomErrors.html" />
</customErrors>
D. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On" >
<error statusCode="404" redirect="CustomErrors.html"/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A

Microsoft   70-492 pdf   70-492

NO.14 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC news aggregation application that will be deployed to
servers on multiple networks.
The application must be compatible with multiple browsers. A user can search the website for news
articles. You must track the page number that the user is viewing in search results.
You need to program the location for storing state information about the user's search.
What should you do?
A. Store search results and page index in Session.
B. Use Application state to store search terms and page index.
C. Use QueryString to store search terms and page index.
D. Store search results and page index in TempData
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change
frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements.
Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. Sql Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Answer: B,D

Microsoft study guide   70-492   70-492   70-492
Explanation:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based
on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy
relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that
provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data
protection and self-healing.
Session States in Windows Azure. If you are a Web developer, you are probably very familiar with
managing user state - that is you are familiar with tracking user activity and actions across several
request-response exchanges that occur in Web applications. Since HTTP is a stateless protocol,
developers over the years have developed all sorts of means to manage state. You'll even find an
MSDN page providing alternatives and recommendations for state management here. Cookies,
hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state. When it comes
to managing that state on the server-side, most Web developers rely on session objects.

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Exam Code: 74-325
Exam Name: Microsoft (Administering Office 365 for Small Businesses)
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You need to choose an Office 365 subscription plan that provides unlimited mailbox archive
storage space. Which three plans meet the requirements? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose three.)
A. Office 365 Enterprise E4
B. Office 365 Midsize Business
C. Exchange Online Plan 1
D. Exchange Online Plan 2
E. Office 365 Enterprise E3
Answer: A,D,E

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Explanation:
D (not C): Exchange Online Plan 2 (but not Exchange Online Plan 1) includes:
Unlimited storage: Take advantage of unlimited storage (50 GB of storage in the user's
primary mailbox, plus unlimited storage in the user's In-Place Archive).

NO.2 Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription.
You need to remove a user's Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox without removing access to
Microsoft SharePoint Online, Lync Online, Office Professional Plus, or other eligible services.
What should you do?
A. Remove the user's mailbox by running a Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Change the user to an Office 365 E3 subscription.
C. in the Exchange admin center, delete the mailbox.
D. In the Office 365 admin center, remove the Exchange Online license-
Answer: C

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4. Which three statements about the computer that runs the Windows Azure Active Directory
Sync tool are true? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. The computer can run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2.
B. The computer must run a 64-bit version of Windows.
C. The computer must be joined to the domain or forest that you plan to synchronize with Office
365.
D. The computer must be able to communicate with all domain controllers.
E. The computer must be a domain controller.
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
The computer used for Directory Synchronization must meet the following requirements:
-(C, D) It must be joined to the on premise Active Directory. It must be able to connect to
all of the other Domain Controllers (DCs) for all of the forest.
-(not E) It cannot be a domain controller (thus can't be run on SBS).
-(B) It must run on a supported 64 bit Windows Server system which is:
o 64 bit version of Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Standard, Enterprise or Datacenter
o 64 bit version of Windows Server 2012 Standard or Datacenter
-It must run Microsoft .NET Framework version 3.5 SP1 and .NET Framework version 4.0
-It must run Windows PowerShell.
-It must be located in an access controlled environment.
Note:
Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool (DIRSYNC) is an application that provides one
way synchronization from a company's on premise Active Directory (AD) to Windows Azure
Active Directory.
5. Your company plans to permit users to connect their own computers to corporate resources.
You need to prevent specific types of devices from connecting to your Microsoft Exchange
environment.
What should you create?
A. a mail flow rule that prevents mail delivery to the device types
B. an Outlook Web App policy that disables device types
C. a device mailbox policy that denies access to the device types
D. a device access rule that denies access to the device types
Answer: D

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6. What mailbox data does an IMAP migration process migrate?
A. Contacts
B. All email messages
C. Calendars
D. Only email messages larger than 35 MB
Answer: B

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7. What does a mobile device mailbox policy allow a Microsoft Exchange Online admin to do?
A. Set criteria for connections to the Exchange Online servers
B. Quarantine devices or allow or block connections based on the device type
C. Provide remote assistance to mobile device users over the Internet
D. Monitor the behavior of users' mobile devices
Answer: A

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8. Which three products does Office 365 include? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose three.)
A. Microsoft Office Standard
B. Microsoft Lync Online
C. Microsoft Exchange Online
D. Microsoft System Center
E. Microsoft SharePoint Online
Answer: A,B,C

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Explanation:
"Office 365" refers to subscription plans that include access to Office applications plus other
productivity services that are enabled over the Internet (cloud services), such as Lync web
conferencing and Exchange Online hosted email for business, and additional online storage with
SkyDrive and Skype world minutes for home.
9. Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise E3 subscription for 60 users.
How much Microsoft SharePoint Online storage space does the subscription include?
A. 30 GB
B. 40 GB
C. 60 GB
D. 70 GB
Answer: B

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10. How many Microsoft SharePoint Online site collections does the Office 365 Small Business
Premium plan include?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 20
D. 100
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three criteria can Exchange Online Protection use to block email messages? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. ip address
B. language
C. country or region
D. fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
E. email server type
Answer: A,B,C

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Explanation:
A: Connection filtering
The spam filters first check the IP Allow and IP Block lists and filter inbound messages
according to the specifications of both lists. Messages that are sent from allowed IP
addresses are not subject to further spam filtering; for example, content filtering is
bypassed. Furthermore, messages from an IP address that appears on both lists are
allowed. IP Allow and IP Block lists are empty by default and must be configured by editing
the default connection filter policy.
BC: Content filtering include International Filtering:
You can choose to filter email messages written in specific languages, or sent from specific countries
or regions.

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Exam Code: MA0-150
Exam Name: McAfee (McAfee Certified Assessment Specialist- UH)
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Total Q&A: 177 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What Microsoft utility encrypts the hashed passwords in a SAM database using 128-bit encryption?
A. ASLR
B. DEP
C. Syskey
D. Kerberos
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is NOT a possible cross-site request forgery attack vector?
A. Captchas
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Email
D. Chat
Answer: A

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NO.3 Below is a packet capture from Wireshark showing 2 equivalent MAC address in the Source field. Box 1
shows "Asustek..." while Box 2 shows "00:1a:92..".?
-Wireshark can determine these are equivalent because MAC addresses can be mapped to
A. Operating systems (and variants)
B. Computer names
C. RFCs
D. Vendors
Answer: D

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NO.4 A person connects to a web application via a mobile device. What request header name can this
application use determine which device the person is using?
A. Referer
B. User agent
C. Connection
D. Host
Answer: B

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NO.5 The command "grep password *" searches for
A. The word "password" in all files in the current directory.
B. The character "*" in the file "password".
C. The word "password" in all files in the current directory and all subdirectories.
D. All passwords in the file named "*".
Answer: A

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NO.6 An attacker has just compromised a Linux host. What command can be used to determine the
distribution of Linux?
A. cat /etc/crontab
B. cat /etc/passwd
C. cat/etc/issue
D. cat /etc/shadow
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the magic number for a Linux binary?
A. MZ
B. JFIF
C. EXIF
D. ELF
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the quickest protocol to brute force when attacking Windows?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. SMB
D. SSH
Answer: C

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NO.9 What file indicates and controls where system logs are stored?
A. pam.conf
B. smb.conf
C. authlog.conf
D. syslog.conf
Answer: D

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NO.10 Under UNIX, Pluggable Authentication Modules (PAN) can be used to
A. Implement strong password management.
B. Crack password hashes from /etc/shadow.
C. Crack password hashes from /etc/passwd.
D. Create a certificate authority (CA).
Answer: A

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NO.11 The following output is generated from cat /etc/shadow:
What hashing algorithm is used to protect the root password?
A. Crypt (DES)
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. SHA
Answer: D

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NO.12 The Xscan tool is a
A. X Windows Brute Forcer
B. Keylogger for X Windows
C. Keylogger for Mac OS X D. Multi OS port scanner
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the proper syntax for enumerating non-hidden shares on a host?
A. net view /domain
B. net view /domain:itcertking.com
C. net view \\{target}
D. net use \\{target}\ipc$ "" /u:""
Answer: C

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NO.14 In computer security, a small piece of code that acts as a payload in which an attacker can control a
remote machine is called
A. A buffer overflow.
B. A NOP sled.
C. Shell code.
D. Stack overflow.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the term used for a technique that runs code within the address space of another process by
forcing it to bad a library?
A. Address space layout randomization
B. Overwriting HP
C. DLL injection
D. SQL injection
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the basis for Cisco Type 7 passwords?
A. Asymmetric key cryptography
B. Symmetric key cryptography
C. One-way hashing
D. Encoding
Answer: D

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NO.17 The datapipe and fpipe tools can be used for
A. Port scanning.
B. Port redirection.
C. Passing the hash.
D. Directory traversal.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the correct syntax to query under which service a user account is running?
A. sc.exe \\192.168.1.1 qc <service>
B. sc.exe \\192.168.1.1 <service>
C. net start \\192.168.1.1 qc
D. net start W192.168.1.1
Answer: A

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NO.19 Horizontal privilege escalation is a vulnerability of authorization where users act at a privilege level
A. Above one they are entitled to act.
B. Below one they are entitled to act.
C. That they are entitled to but only as a different user.
D. That transfers across another application.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An attacker has compromised a Linux/Unix host and discovers a suspicious file called "password" that
has no file extension.
What command can be used to determine the filetype?
A. filetype
B. file
C. filer
D. fileext
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Lpi (LPI Level 3 Exam 304)
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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 RBD is equivalent to a networked version of what RAID level?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to have all requests matching the ACL acl_static_content directed to the servers defined in
server_pool, which HAProxy directive is required in the following declaration? (Specify ONLY the
missing directive)
______ server_pool if acl_static_content
Your Response
Answer. use_backend

NO.3 Which of the the following cluster infrastructure services are provided by heartbeat (versions 3 and
post 2.1)? (Specify TWO correct answers)
A. membership
B. communication
C. advanced resource management
D. STONITH
E. service migration
Answer: A,B,

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NO.4 Which option is missing in the command below to perform a Xen migration of a domain without pausing
the virtual machine? (Please specify only the option in short or long form)
xm migrate vm1 ____ 192.168.1.1
Your Response
Answer. -l --live l live

NO.5 Why does this virtual machine NOT boot?
kvm drive file=sd
a.img,if=scsi m 128
A. KVM cannot be started on the command line.
B. The boot=on parameter is missing in the drive definition.
C. KVM does not use the drive option; it uses hda instead.
D. It is missing a cdrom
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following statements is true about the live migration feature of Xen?
A. It requires that the source and destination hosts have access, with same rights, to the device that
exports the virtual machine file system.
B. It is used to migrate the file system of virtual machines between two hosts on the same network
segment, ensuring data integrity during the migration process.
C. It is recommended that the virtual machines be restarted after migration to ensure that network settings
will be updated.
D. It requires that the virtual machines are turned off to ensure that data stored in the RAM of the virtual
machine will not be lost during the migration.
E. It is used to convert physical servers into virtual machines without having to stop the physical servers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following statements about STONITH is NOT true?
A. You can use hardware devices such as HP ILO or Dell DRAC management boards for STONITH.
B. Resources will migrate only after a STONITH operation has been issued successfully.
C. It is recommended to use STONITH to increase the integrity of the cluster.
D. Null STONITH is a good solution if you have guaranteed the integrity of the file systems used in your
cluster in another way.
E. When setting up SSHSTONITH, you should use a dedicated communications link for the STONITH
traffic in the cluster.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which function is not supported in a GFS2 filesystem?
A. repair
B. grow
C. shrink
D. withdraw
Answer: C

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NO.9 In keepalived, what keyword starts the configuration section for one of the failover servers?
A. lvs_server
B. virtual_server
C. vrrp_instance
D. vrrp_sync_group
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which one of the following is NOT a required component for running an OCFS2 file system resource in
a Pacemaker environment?
A. A clone resource for the OCFS2 file system
B. quorum
C. dlm
D. clvm
E. o2cb
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which configuration setting ultimately determines which server will be the MASTER with keepalived?
A. advert_int
B. state
C. type
D. priority
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are true when comparing full virtualization and paravirtualization in
Xen? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. Paravirtualization demands changes to operating systems designed to be installed directly on the
hardware when using those operating systems as guests.
B. It is possible to use, without changes, operating systems designed to be installed directly on the
hardware when using it as guest in full virtualization.
C. The number of virtual CPUs can be configured only in the full virtualization mode.
D. Paravirtualization depends on special CPU features like IntelVT or AMDV.
E. The virtual network resources are available for both types of virtualization.
Answer: A,B,E,

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NO.13 Which of the following are the primary components to Conga? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. luci
B. ipvsadm
C. cman
D. fenced
E. ricci
Answer: A,E,

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NO.14 How many virtual CPUs can KVM support in SMP guests?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 2
D. 16
E. 4
Answer: D

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NO.15 Using Linux Virtual Server (LVS) provides which of the following features? (Select TWO correct
answers)
A. Balancing load across real servers
B. Taking over for fenced nodes
C. Stopping services on other nodes when one node has a stopped service
D. Checking and maintaining the integrity of services on real servers
E. Starting and stopping virtual machines as needed
Answer: A,D,

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NO.16 What is the name of the main configuration file for the Xen Daemon, xend? (Please enter the file name
without any path information).
Your Response
Answer. /etc/xen/xend-config.sxp xend-config.sxp

NO.17 A configuration file for a Xen virtual machine was created in the directory /etc/xen with filename
slack.cfg. What is the command to start the virtual machine defined in this configuration file including
displaying its console on screen?
A. xm start slack
B. xm create slack.cfg showconsole
C. xm create slack.cfg
D. xm start slack.cfg c
E. xm create slack.cfg c
Answer: E

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NO.18 What actions are permitted by a hypervisor? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. A hypervisor may install a Guest OS.
B. A hypervisor may perform privileged tasks on behalf of the Guest OS.
C. A hypervisor may shape traffic on the bridged network devices for the Guest OS.
D. A hypervisor may directly manipulate memory.
E. A hypervisor may execute privileged CPU instructions.
Answer: B,D,E,

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NO.19 Which of the following are common uses of virtualization? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Operating System virtualization
B. User virtualization
C. Identification virtualization
D. Authentication virtualization
E. Storage virtualization
Answer: A,E,

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NO.20 Which of the following are Pacemaker components? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. ccmd
B. crmd
C. heartbeat
D. pengine
E. keepalived
Answer: B,D,

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Exam Code: 190-829
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM WebSphere Protal V6 Application Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Fiona is developing a series of portlets that will eventually work together and exchange data,
providing a more dynamic user experience. What portlet service does WebSphere Portal provide that will
allow her portlets to exchange data?
A. PUMA SPI
B. Property Broker
C. Credential Vault
D. Cooperative Interface
Answer: B

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NO.2 Tony is just beginning to work with a Faces portlet in RAD. Since RAD automatically switched to the
Web Perspective when he started the project, where can he find Enhanced Faces Components (such as
a Data Table) to 'drag and drop" onto the page editor?
A. In the Palette
B. In the Quick Edit view
C. In the Page Data view
D. In the Project Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.3 Hallie is developing a custom theme for her portal project. What is unique about the style sheets
associated with a WebSphere Portal theme?
A. Style sheets are saved as JSPs
B. CSS files must be deployed as portlet WARs
C. All styles must be prepended with "portal-theme"
D. The default css must begin with a portal style class declaration
Answer: A

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NO.4 Will is developing a business process application, and is at the point where he is initiating the process
instance. He has used a JNDI lookup to obtain a reference to the process server remote EJB interface.
Next he codes the portlet to start the process with an input message. Once the process starts, what is
returned to the caller by the operation?
A. The process-instance name
B. The process template name
C. The object ID of the new process instance
D. A reference to the BusinessProcess session bean
Answer: C

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NO.5 Mary is developing a composite application, in which one of the components requires access to a
back-end system.
Which of the following is the WebSphere Portal mechanism for managing user access to back end
systems without having to continuously provide new credentials?
A. Siteminder
B. Credential Vault Service
C. Tivoli Application Security
D. WEBSeal Authentication Proxy
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is valid about the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog?
A. Portlet technology previews developed outside of IBM may be made available through the IBM
Workplace Solutions Catalog.
B. Developers need to download the Rational Application Developer from IBM the Workplace Solutions
Catalog.
C. All portlets on the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog are available as open source so developers can
use the code as a basis for new portlets.
D. Portlets created by vendors like are available through the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Nell is using RAD 7 and would like to minimize the startup time of her local WebSphere Portal 6 server.
Which approach should she take to accomplish this?
A. Deselect all portlets that do not need to be started for testing
B. Enable "Optimize server for testing and developing" in the servers view
C. Modify the batch file that starts WebSphere Portal to include -Xquickstart
D. Modify the JAVA_Size environment variable for the development machine
Answer: B

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NO.8 Tracy is building a composite application for WebSphere Portal 6. What are the two fundamental
aspects of composite applications?
A. Libraries and instances
B. Applications and workflow
C. Templates and applications
D. Templates and business components
Answer: C

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NO.9 A team of developers must improve Portal layout and navigational features. What tool in Rational
Application Developer V7.0 should they use?
A. Portlet Designer
B. Page Designer
C. Portal Designer
D. Customization Designer
Answer: C

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NO.10 Xavier is working with a IBM Workplace Web Content Management application, extending it with the
API. Which item is the primary focus of the API?
A. The library
B. The workspace
C. The property broker
D. The document manager component
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following actions is required in order to launch the Wireless Markup Language (WML)
device emulator when using WebSphere Portal?
A. Specify Wireless Markup Language the markup in portlet.xml file
B. Select "Enable Wireless Markup Language Setting" option
C. Enable Transcoding
D. Enable Wireless Markup Language Markup
Answer: C

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NO.12 Inez is developing a composite application and wishes to leverage the related public interfaces
available to her as a developer. Which of the following interfaces contains a method to provide supported
parameters during creation of a business component?
A. Lifecycle
B. Membership
C. Templatable
D. DisplayInfo
Answer: A

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NO.13 Bethany is creating a custom mail portlet service for use by several portlets. She has defined the
interface, written the code for her services, and created and installed the service's .jar file on her portal
server. Before she can code her portlets to access the service, what final step must be taken?
A. Register the service
B. Extend the PortletService interface
C. Specify action processing for the service
D. Modify the credential vault slot for the service user role
Answer: A

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NO.14 Ivan is configuring his local development machine with a deployment of WebSphere Portal 6 for
testing. Which list below describes the software that must be installed in order for his portal server to run?
A. WebSphere Application Server, an LDAP v3 server, and IBM DB2
B. WebSphere Application Server, IBM Cloudscape, and Lotus Domino
C. WebSphere Application Server, IBM Cloudscape, and a WebSphere Portal instance
D. WebSphere Application Server, an LDAP v3 server, IBM Cloudscape, and an external HTTP server
Answer: C

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NO.15 For a web application with multiple Struts portlets, the BEST way to define the initial views of the
individual portlets is to specify them:
A. In the welcome file list in the application's web.xml.
B. In the viewMode.page preferences attributes in the individual portlet.xml.
C. As viewMode properties in the actions section in the individual struts-config.xml.
D. As view attributes in the supports section of the individual portlet.xml.
Answer: B

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NO.16 The Personalization resource wizard in Rational Application Developer is used to generate the
content spot classes and resource collection classes. If the content spot and resource collection will be
used by multiple applications, then those classes should be:
A. Deployed together with the related portlets in the portlet application WAR file.
B. Placed in the WebSphere Application Server shared library.
C. Placed directly in the pzn_root/pzn/v6.0/lib directory.
D. Uploaded using the Personalization interface.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A developer needs to export a portlet from a portal installation so that a collaborative world-wide team
can test it. What is the BEST out-of-box option that the developer can choose to export this Portlet?
A. Use Export XML Portlet
B. Use Upload and Export Portlet C. Use Manage Pages Portlet
D. Copy and Paste the Portlet across machines
Answer: C

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NO.18 For portal business processes that should be processed within portal, what is used to lookup the task
page definition at runtime?
A. Client UI identifier
B. Process Template Name
C. Task instance object identifier (TKIID)
D. Staff activity identifier
Answer: A

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NO.19 Andy is preparing to install Rational Application Developer 7. What level of authority must his ID have
on a Microsoft Windows installation?
A. Root access
B. Administrator
C. Read and Edit
D. Modify and Read
Answer: B

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NO.20 Abigail is a developer working with the theme policy for her corporate theme for WebSphere Portal 6.
Theme policies are managed by administrators, but she can also use a theme policy in what other type of
design artifact?
A. JSP
B. POJO
C. Java class
D. Ajax requests
Answer: A

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