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Exam Code: TU0-001
Exam Name: TruSecure (TruSecure ICSA Certified Security Associate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 196 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does defense in depth refer to?
A. storing the firewall below ground
B. centralizing your security into one point
C. having more than one layer of protection
D. having different types of firewall on your network
Answer: C

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NO.2 Proxy servers operate at which TCP/IP layer?
A. security
B. application
C. host-to-host
D. network interface
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two does the proxy service SOCKS Version 5 provide? (choose two)
A. keystroke logging
B. WINS name service
C. TCP-based services
D. Strong authentication schemes
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What is one-to one Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. It is a service that translates only one originator address at a time.
B. It is a service that translate all originator addresses with a single translated address.
C. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with a unique translated
address.
D. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with one of many translated
addresses.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is true about removing command line tools on Web servers?
A. It limits footholds for an attacker
B. It is common in default installations
C. It is an example of security through obscurity
D. It reduces security because of fewer administrator tools
Answer: A

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NO.6 From a network security standpoint, TFTP should be used_______
A. to authenticate to a Web server
B. whenever you need a simple file transfer mechanism
C. in place of FTP to provide better authentication and tracking
D. in a limited capacity with the least amount of privilege possible
Answer: D

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NO.7 It is most likely for unencrypted data to be sniffed across which connection?
A. dial-up
B. 802.11b
C. DSL/cable
D. Internet OC-3
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which desired design philosophies are demonstrated by the "belt-and suspenders"
architecture?
A. least privilege and simplicity
B. simplicity and diversity of defense
C. universal participation and least privilege
D. diversity of defense and defense in depth
E. defense in depth and universal participation
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are three functions performed by the IPSec protocol? (choose three)
A. providing encrypted tunnels between gateways
B. providing encrypted multicast traffic across enterprises
C. ensuring integrity of unencrypted data between routers
D. providing encrypted connections between workstations and servers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Your Windows PCs rely on n Network Neighborhood to gain access to resources.
Your users are widely reporting resources missing.
What is likely the problem?
A. You are currently under a denial of service attack.
B. Your systems have been infected with a Trojan Horse.
C. Directed broadcasts have been disabled at your routers.
D. Updated internet firewall rules have prevented the NBT protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When installing an OS on a new platform, what is recommended?
A. encrypt all system files
B. apply all of the vendors patches
C. delete all admin accounts left by the installation
D. wait and see if problems develop before applying patches to minimize down time.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What should you remember when using a plug or generic proxy?
A. Logging is extremely difficult
B. It cannot detect IP spoofing attacks
C. It adds no application specific checking
D. It cannot be tied to a particular service or protocol
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the most significant problem solved by public-key cryptography?
A. key recovery
B. key exchange
C. key generation
D. key distribution
Answer: D

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NO.14 Echo and Chargen services are most often used for_________
A. measuring load on a local system
B. maliciously inducing stress on networks
C. creating L2 TP tunnels between networks
D. forwarding connections between systems
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are two uses of the TCP wrappers package?
A. It logs all TCP connections.
B. It provides granular access control to TCP services.
C. It encapsulates TCP segments inside other protocols to bypass firewall.
D. It prevents external hosts from initiating TCP-based applications on internal servers.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which attack is made easier by poor TCP/IP implementations?
A. IP spoofing
B. Password guessing
C. Network PING sweeps
D. TCP sequence guessing
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three are protocols or services used for authentication functions? (choose
three)
A. NTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. TAPI
E. RADIUS
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Which two assurances does digitally signing a file or message provide? (choose two)
A. time stamping
B. data integrity
C. non-repudiation
D. confidentiality
Answer: B, C

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NO.19 What is the weakest aspect of the DES cryptographic algorithm in protecting
sensitive information?
A. The complexity of the algorithm makes it too slow for day-to day use.
B. Automated attacks at guessing all possible keys have been demonstrated.
C. The block size of the algorithm is too small to handle large amounts of data.
D. The source code of the algorithm is widely available and may prove to have flaws.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the most secure means of administering a router?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. Web GuI
D. Serial Connection
Answer: D

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Exam Code: TB0-124
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO® MDM 8 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two security types are supported for enterprise user accounts.? (Choose two.)
A. authenticated users
B. passwords
C. authorized users
D. LDAP-based authenticated password
E. Application Server user credentials
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You have made changes to the "allmenu.xml" file to include access to the TIBCO MDM User Guide
Which file must be redeployed to make the User Guide available in the Menu List?
A. ECM.war
B. EML.ear
C. ECM.ear
D. EML.war
Answer: C

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NO.3 When must the 'First Pass' advanced rulebase attribute be defined as Required?
A. When conditions must be executed in the context of creating records
B. When a parent record propagates values to a child
C. When the rulebase declares links to relationships
D. When the rulebase creates SoftLink with child records
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three parameters can be configured for Quick Export? (Choose three.)
A. maximum number of records to be exported
B. the progress bar increment
C. the file extension
D. delivery method
E. the name of the file
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which three actions can you take with subset rules? (Choose three.)
A. select records for synchronization with Backend System
B. select records when importing data into a repository
C. save searches to save the selection criterion for reuse in a record search
D. create a list of records for browsing
E. change the display of the attribute values (i.e. change to upper case on selected records)
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 As part of simple cleansing processes workflow, you want to verify that some attributes are defined and
all attributes are entered in uppercase.
What is the best approach for meeting this requirement?
A. You create a rulebase with two rules: one for checking mandatory attributes and one for transforming
all attributes into uppercase. You call this rulebase in the Mass-Update interface to apply modifications to
a chosen subset of data.
B. You create a rulebase with two rules: one for checking mandatory attributes and one for transforming
all attributes into uppercase. You add an activity in the import workflow, which will call this rulebase file at
the beginning of the process.
C. You pre-process custom functionalities that get the input file, do the check on mandatory attributes,
and put all of them in uppercase before generating a clean file for TIBCO MDM.
D. You ask all source applications to implement the mandatory rules as well as the uppercase condition.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three statements are true about clustering Application Servers? (Choose three.)
A. All Application Servers in the cluster must have the same JVM version.
B. Each server must have different ports assigned for JNDI registry in the Configurator.
C. Each Application Server should have its own logging setup with a separate logging configuration.
D. The NODEJD environment variable must be unique for each Application Server instance in the cluster.
E. The Application Servers and Database Servers must be installed on the same machine.
F. All the Application Servers in the cluster must be connected to different database instances.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Click on the two correct index configurations.
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which statement is true about data import?
A. It can be initiated through web services.
B. It can be initiated through FileWatcher.
C. It must be initiated through the GUI.
D. It creates a new version of the record when a duplicate is imported
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which activity allows for running a rule in a workflow?
A. EvaluateSubset
B. InterpretCommand
C. EvaluateRuleBase
D. IdentifyActionType
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two servers must be running for successful configuration of TIBCO MDM for an Application
Server? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO Cache Server
B. JMS Server
C. Database Server
D. AS2 Server
E. Webserver
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about data synchronization? (Choose Two.)
A. Synchronization Formats define the data format required to get data into the repository.
B. Synchronization Profiles allow you to export a subset of data.
C. Data can only be synchronized incrementally.
D. Data can be synchronized out of the system via JMS.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which three actions are supported in an Initialization Rulebase type? (Choose three.)
A. propagate some attribute values to child records
B. fill up a dropdown from a datasource
C. limit access to attributes/groups of attributes
D. assign default values to the attributes of a new record
E. create a SoftLink
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Which two properties can you change in the Database screen of the Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Table Space File Size
B. Database Server Name
C. Database Port ID
D. Dynamic Table Space Location
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 TIBCO MDM supports which two methods of external system integration? (Choose Two.)
A. Java Messaging Service
B. Java Remote Method Invocation
C. Web Services
D. Enterprise JavaBeans
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: OG0-093
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2)
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Total Q&A: 219 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.2 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

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NO.6 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

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NO.8 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.10 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.12 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.13 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

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NO.14 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.15 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

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NO.16 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.20 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-622
Exam Name: Symantec (Implementation of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
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Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.2 Corporate change control policies require that you have a back out plan before undertaking any
application upgrades. Which two steps could be included in your back out plan for a NetBackup upgrade?
(Choose two.)
A. uninstall the upgraded version of NetBackup and reinstall the older version
B. reinstall the OS and then reinstall the original version of NetBackup
C. use bprecover to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
D. use bprestore to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
Answer:AC

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NO.3 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 NetBackup has been installed in a SAN with a shared robot that contains ten drives. However, only four
drives appear as selectable and there are only four unique drive paths in the OS. Which two commands
are used to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. tpconfig
B. sg.build
C. tpautoconf
D. sg.install
E. shared_drive_notify
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

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NO.6 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

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NO.7 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

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NO.9 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

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NO.11 You are installing the NetBackup for SQL Agent. What must be current for communication to take
place between NetBackup and the SQL database?
A. ODBC
B. TCP/IP
C. Internet Explorer
D. Windows Service Pack
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media servers revision level may be one level higher than its clients revision levels.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media servers revision level.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which three NetBackup processes are running after a successful master server installation? (Choose
three. )
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 You have been given a NetBackup 5.0 configuration to implement that contains the following operating
systemlevels.Which three are supported by NetBackup? (Choose three. )
A. Microsoft Windows 98
B. Sun Solaris 9
C. IBM OS390
D. HP HP/UX 11i
E. RedHat AS 3.0
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 Which script is executed to uninstall a VERITAS Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer:A

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NO.16 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three. )
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the NetBackup catalog.
Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select Manual Backup
B. in the GUI, right-click on Catalog and select Backup NetBackup Catalog
C. from the command line, run bpbackup with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run bpbackupdb with appropriate switches
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 You are preparing for the installation of NetBackup on a Solaris system. This will be a Shared Storage
Optionenvironment that consists of one robotic library, two SCSI tape devices, one bridge, and one Fibre
Channelswitch.Which four files do you review to ensure a valid Target and LUN configuration? (Choose
four.)
A. st.conf
B. vm.conf
C. sg.conf
D. sg.links
E. /etc/system
F. devlink.tab
Answer: ACDF

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NO.20 Which three determine tape usage when preparing for a NetBackup deployment? (Choose three. )
A. tape type
B. backup window
C. number of fulls
D. number of file systems
E. number of incrementals
Answer:ACE

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Exam Name: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5))
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NO.1 A restore must be performed. You have gone into the Backup Archive and Restore GUI and are trying
to view the valid images for clientA but the following error occurs: WARNING: Server does not contain any
valid images. Which options may be incorrectly configured? (Choose three.)
A.Source client for restores
B.Destination client for restores
C.Server to use for backups and restores
D.Media server for restore
E.Policy types for restore
Answer:A C E

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D.A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which report provides a list of media that were used in the last five hours?
A.Tape Lists
B.Tape Written
C.Tape Contents
D.Tape Summary
E.Status of Backups
Answer:B

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NO.4 You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if
the installation was successful?
A.bpbrm, nbrb
B.bpdbm, nbemm
C.bpdbm, nbjm
D.bpbrm, nbjm
Answer:C

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NO.5 Consider the following: Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The
systems use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share ten tape drives on a single robot. Backups run at
night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during the day. All duplications must
run on the master server to free media server resources. What would you do to allow the master server to
perform all duplications?
A.Clear Drive Duplication Enabled in the Device Manager for SAN media servers.
B.In the Vault policy, set Alternate Server Duplicate Disable for SAN media servers.
C.Set an offsite volume pool for master server access only.
D.Set an alternate read server in the Vault Management Properties tab.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A.Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B.True image restore with move detection
C.Disk staging storage unit restore
D.Instant Recovery
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose
three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer:A C D

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NO.8 Netbackup 6.5 is configured with a disk storage unit with staging enabled. Some of the images in the
disk storage unit have been successfully duplicated. The disk storage unit becomes full. What happens
next?
A.Duplicated images are purged until the disk storage unit can hold the next backup.
B.Duplicated images are purged until 98% below the disk capacity has been reached.
C.Duplicated images are purged until the high water mark has been reached.
D.Duplicated images are purged until the lower water mark has been reached.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which factors affect the physical expiration of media? (Choose two.)
A.Date
B.Media full
C.Number of mounts
D.Media being moved to a new server
E.Changing the backup retention level
Answer:A C

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NO.10 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.within the EMM database
B.on the EMM server in binary format
C.on the master server in binary format
D.within the master server's Sybase database
Answer:C

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NO.11 What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A.NetBackup Windows Service
B.NetBackup Client Service
C.NetBackup Remote Service
D.NetBack File System Service
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer:A C E

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NO.13 Which two commands can be used to check and update the robot inventory? (Choose two.)
A.vmcheck
B.bpupdate
C.vmchange
D.vmupdate
E.vmcheckxxx
Answer:D E

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NO.14 What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\hosts
B.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and Windows Registry
C.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\hosts
D.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and Windows Control Panel
Answer:B

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NO.15 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5?
(Choose two.)
A.All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B.All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C.A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D.A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E.A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer:C D

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NO.17 Which backup method can restore individual files from a raw disk backup?
A.Copy on write snapshot
B.Mirror snapshot
C.FlashBackup
D.True image restore
Answer:C

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NO.18 NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database.
Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A.NOMadmincmd
B.NOMadmin
C.NOMcmd
D.NOMadm
Answer:B

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NO.19 When a restore is performed to client A, which process will go active when the restore starts?
A.tar
B.bpbkar
C.bpbkar32
D.tar32
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003
system? (Choose two.)
A.You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B.You can change the default port numbers.
C.You can only add up to five media servers.
D.You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E.You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer:A B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

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NO.2 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

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NO.5 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

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NO.11 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.16 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

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NO.18 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.19 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

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NO.20 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

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NO.23 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

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NO.24 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

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NO.25 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.26 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

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NO.28 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.29 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
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NO.1 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.2 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

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NO.6 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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NO.10 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.11 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.13 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.14 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.15 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

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NO.17 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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