2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: C2180-271
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1, Deployment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A deployment professional has successfully completed an installation of IBM Business
Process
Manager Advanced V7.5.1 and has verified that the Process Center has started and is ready
for use by a
development team. Several developers now need to begin development of a process flow
using the IBM
Process Designer tool, and have provided the deployment professional with access to their
development
machines. How should the deployment professional proceed to begin installation of the IBM
Process
Designer tool for the developers?
A. Use IBM Installation Manager to install the IBM Process Designer.
B. Download the IBM Process Designer from the IBM Support website.
C. Install IBM Integration Designer which includes the IBM Process Designer.
D. Connect to the Process Center in a browser, and click the IBM Process Designer
Download option.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A deployment professional has been tasked with performing a typical IBM Business
Process Manager
Advanced installation with all of the latest fixes for a proof of concept. The installation is to be
performed
on a 64-bit Linux system using the Oracle database. The environment used for the
installation is on an
isolated network with no internet connectivity. What task should the deployment professional
perform to
ensure a successful installation?
A. Pre-create the needed database.
B. Ensure the 32-bit version of the product is used.
C. Prepare multiple machines for the clustered environment.
D. Verify the Installation Manager search service repositories option during install and update
is selected.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A deployment professional has to apply interim fixes to IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced
V7.5.1. The server where the fixes must be applied does not have an internet connection. All
the fixes
were downloaded to a local directory. What is the next step the deployment professional
must do to apply
the fixes?
A. Modify the repository.config file to point to each fix.
B. Apply each fix detected in the directory using the "Install" wizard.
C. Copy the fixes to a maintenance directory and point to this directory.
D. Use the Installation Manager to add a repository for each fix to be applied.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A deployment professional has just completed a custom installation and needs to
examine the
installation details. What should the deployment professional use.?
A. Default application
B. First Steps Console
C. Installation Verification Tool
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: C

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NO.5 A deployment professional needs to install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced
V7.5.1 on an
existing installation of WebSphere Application Server. How should the deployment
professional do this?
A. Select typical installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
B. Select typical installation option and import WebSphere Application Server into Installation
Manager,
then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
C. Select custom installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
D. Select custom installation option and install a new WebSphere Application Server version
into
Installation Manager, then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2040-656
Exam Name: IBM (ICS SmartCloud for Social Business Sales Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 26 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are the billing options for SmartCloud for Social Business?
A. Daily, Per Minute
B. Monthly, Quarterly, Annually, Upfront
C. Per User, Per Department
D. By the number of minutes a user is logged in
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the URL to log into SmartCloud for Social Business?
A. www.socialcloud.com
B. www.getsocial.com
C. www.ibm.connections.com
D. www.ibmcloud.com/social
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a potential sales opportunity for SmartCloud for Social
Business?
A. A satisfied Lotus customer.
B. Lotus customers that have stated an intent to move to another collaboration platform.
C. Whitespace customers who do not currently do business with IBM.
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2140-021
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM
capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

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NO.4 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with
which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the
interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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NO.6 A project lead wants to ensure that the whole team understands the overall scope of
the project.
Which capability of IBM Rational CLM should the sales specialist highlight?
A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in
the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest
of the team is
doing and how it impacts the overall workload?
A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.8 Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they
must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.10 An organization has developed a set of best practices it plans to reuse in the future.
How should the
organization use IBM Rational CLM to achieve this?
A. create a project template
B. write a best practices wiki
C. generate a process report
D. develop a project script
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2180-651
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureApplication System Sales MasteryTest v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which is NOT a benefit of the IBM PureApplication System simplified experience?
A. Ability to be upgraded with zero downtime
B. Single management console with role-based processes and automation capabilities
C. Embedded process control and security patterns
D. Only two contacts needed for support: one for hardware and one for software
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which one of the following is NOT a business demand that the IBM PureApplication
System helps
enable customers to address?
A. Capturing business opportunities more quickly
B. Increased business innovation
C. Leveraging technology more strategically
D. Increased business process control
Answer: D

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NO.3 Most IBM PureApplication System whiteboard conversations will have unique
outcomes, but the most
desired and logical next step in the sales process is which of the following options.?
A. An agreement to move forward with a PureExperience offer
B. A purchase order
C. Another whiteboard discussion with the line of business leaders
D. An Express Business Value Assessment (BVA)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2090-559
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Developer - IBM Informix Genero v1)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which attribute should be set if you need to align fields on the form that are inside different
GROUP containers?
A. STYLE on the field widgets
B. JUSTIFY on the field widgets
C. STYLE on the group containers
D. GRIDCHILDRENINPARENT on the group containers
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the default template_id value used by the GAS xcf file?
A. "_default"
B. "defaultgwc"
C. "gwdefault.css"
D. "gwcomponents.css"
Answer: A

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NO.3 To modify the options that are visible when a user right-clicks on a program, which file must
be modified?
A. Form file
B. Program 4gl file
C. Action Default file
D. Presentation Style file
Answer: C

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NO.4 When using the Genero Application Server, what is the preferred method for implementing
load balancing (to increase capacity)?
A. The Genero Application Server is multi-threaded and handles load balancing automatically.
B. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on different servers, and use
thirdparty
tools to implement load balancing.
C. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on a multi-CPU host. Configure
load balancing among these various instances
within the http.conf file.
D. Place the Web Server and the Genero Application Server dispatchers on one host, and the
VMProxies (and the DVMs they instantiate) on
separate hosts. Modify the http.conf file to specify the location of the hosts where the VMProxies
reside.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If the server has IP 192.168.1.50 and the client has IP 192.168.1.100, and GDC is listening on
port
6400 on the client machine, which is the correct value for the FGLSERVER variable?
A. 192.168.1.50:0
B. 192.168.1.100:0
C. 192.168.1.50:6400
D. 192.168.1.100:6400
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is needed to provide the classes needed to create a Web Service ?
A. IMPORT os
B. IMPORT util
C. IMPORT xml
D. IMPORT com
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Web Service Application is started with three pool elements in its configuration: START=2
MIN_AVAILABLE=2 MAX_AVAILABLE=4 If each process takes 10 seconds to run, and 5
incoming process requests are received in the course of 6 minutes, at most how many DVM's will
be started?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which method does NOT belong to the os.path class?
A. size()
B. rename()
C. separator()
D. getProgramDir()
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which product contains the Genero Report Viewer?
A. Genero Web Client
B. Genero Desktop Client
C. Genero Report Designer
D. Genero Dynamic Virtual Machine (DVM)
Answer: B

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NO.10 What URL would you enter to call the "myApp" application defined in group "demo" through
the "myWebServer" Web Server?
A. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/myApp
B. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
C. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
D. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/sua/demo/myApp
Answer: B

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NO.1 At which level do Commodity Codes exist within IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. Set level
B. Site level
C. System level
D. Organization level
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the use of work assets on safety plans?
A. The work asset determines to which assets and locations a safety plan can be applied.
B. Only safety plans with associated work assets can be used in combination with job plans.
C. The safety plan can only be applied to work orders with the same asset or location associated.
D. The work assets combined with the work on a job plan dictate which safety information is required.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In order to use the item records at the site level, to what must the item be added?
A. Asset
B. Location
C. Storeroom
D. Rotating Asset
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Client has requested that once Terms and Conditions (Ts Cs) are attached to another record, the
Ts Cs should be unchangeable. How is this appropriately accomplished?
A. In the Contracts application, delete the Ts Cs from the record and enter a new row.
B. In the application using the specific Ts Cs, rename the Ts Cs and approve the record.
C. In the Terms and Conditions Application, uncheck the Editable box on the newly created term.
D. In the Terms and Conditions Application, change the status of the newly created term to Approved.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more
Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is used to execute a task at a particular time against any application on a user-defined schedule
with user-defined parameters?
A. Sets
B. Workflow
C. Cron Task
D. Notification
Answer: C

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NO.7 The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 administrator creates a new Start Center with updated Key
Performance Indicators. Which application must be used to associate the Start Center to users?
A. Users
B. People
C. Organizations
D. Security Groups
Answer: D

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NO.8 What should be done to add lines from a Purchase Request (PR) to a Requests for Quotation (RFQ)?
A. Hyperlink to the PR tab and add each line.
B. Go to the Vendors tab in the RFQ application and click Create PO.
C. Go to the Quotation tab in the RFQ application and select RFQ lines.
D. Select Action in the RFQ application and click Copy PR line item to RFQ.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Can an item balance ever be allowed to be negative?
A. never
B. always
C. depends on which item
D. depends on if it is allowed in the Inventory Default settings
Answer: D

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NO.10 Company XYZ receives an invoice from one of its vendors. How is this processed in IBM Maximo
Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM)?
A. When an invoice is received by the company, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
receipt information, approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
B. All invoices are routed by IMAM to the Accounts Payable department for matching against existing
purchase requisitions (PR). Once the PR is confirmed with the proper approvals, the
Accounts Payable department will process payment.
C. When an invoice is received by company XYZ, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
Vendors Invoice information by creating a new record, match the Vendor Invoice to the
Purchase Order (PO), approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
D. When an invoice is received by the company XYZ, the user will go to the PO application, access the
PO Line tab, and insure that the receipt box has a Y. If the Y is showed, the invoice will be
closed, but if the Y is missing, the invoice will be routed back to the vendor for verification.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What must be done in order to automatically close the purchase requisition (PR) after one or more
purchase orders (PO) have been created?
A. All PR lines must be assigned to a PO.
B. The PR must be in the Approved status.
C. The PR must enter the workflow process.
D. All manual company input fields must be completed.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Other than through the Purchase Orders application, how can Purchase Orders be created in IBM
Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. from an approved Lease, Rental, Master, or Purchase contract
B. from a Purchase Requisitions Create PO action, create the approved Purchase Order
C. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Master Contract, or a reorder process
D. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Purchase Contract, or a reorder process
Answer: D

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NO.13 In IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2, what does the Purchase Orders applications Distribute
Costs action do?
A. Distribute the line item cost among all lines.
B. Distribute the line item cost among all direct issue lines.
C. Distribute the line item cost among multiple GL accounts.
D. Distribute the purchase order cost among multiple GL accounts.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particular Lot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C

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NO.15 A work order has been created to perform corrective maintenance on a defective generator. All
required information has been provided in the work order, but required materials are not in stock and
have to be ordered. What is the status of the work order, after a maintenance manager has approved the
work order?
A. Approved (APPR)
B. Waiting on Materials (WMATL)
C. Waiting to be Scheduled (WSCH)
D. Waiting on Plant Condition (WPCOND)
Answer: B

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NO.16 With which level in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 are Purchase Contracts associated?
A. Set Level
B. System Level
C. Database Level
D. Organization Level
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled from lotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Where are the receipt of Services and Materials processed in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2
(IMAM)?
A. The Receipt of Services and Materials are processed in the Receiving application.
B. Services are rendered and Materials are received in the Purchase Order application.
C. Receipts of Services and Materials are systematically processed in IMAM transitionally.
D. Services are rendered and Materials are received using the Issues and Transfer application.
Answer: A

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NO.19 In a routing type workflow process, on which nodes does IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 use the
information specified to deliver the record to individuals?
A. Condition and Task
B. Manual Input and Task
C. Interaction and Manual Input
D. Manual Input and Subprocess
Answer: B

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NO.20 What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two applications can be used by a user to report emergency work, if the user at least wants to
report downtime, classify the request, and report actuals? (Choose two.)
A. Job Plan
B. Quick Reporting
C. Labor Reporting
D. Work Order Tracking
E. Assignment Manager
Answer: BD

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NO.22 What should be done if a company decides to stop doing business with a vendor?
A. Notify buyers using Workflow.
B. Delete the Company Master record.
C. Set the Company record status to DISQUAL.
D. Check the Disqualified Vendor check box on the Company record.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which status will prevent an invoice from being cancelled?
A. Hold
B. Entered
C. Approved
D. Waiting for Approval
Answer: C

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NO.24 What must be assigned to establish an asset as Rotating?
A. Spare parts
B. Rotating Item
C. Classification
D. Operating Location
Answer: B

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NO.25 Through which action are Currency Codes created?
A. select New Row in Currency Codes application
B. select Action Currency Codes in the Database Configuration application
C. select an Organization in the Currency Codes application and add a new row
D. select the Base Currency lookup in the Organizations application and add a new row
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which two applications can be used to view actual costs for labor, materials, services, and tools?
(Choose two.)
A. Labor Reporting
B. Quick Reporting
C. Work Order Tracking
D. Assignment Manager
E. Work Order Management
Answer: BC

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NO.27 How can Service Items be reordered?
A. The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM) administrator can use the Reorder Items action in
the Inventory application to reorder all the Service Items required.
B. The IMAM administrator can create a purchase order (PO) for all the Service Items required and use
the Issue on Receipt check box for PO Lines related to Service Items.
C. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder all items or services and are issued without being received into
inventory.
D. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder items or services that are listed on approved work orders and
are issued without being received into inventory.
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the maximum value (as a percentage of total cost) that an item identified as condition-coded
can have?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D

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NO.29 Based on which two conditions can master Preventive Maintenance (PM) schedules be created?
(Choose two.)
A. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by PM
B. difference between completion date of previous work and system date is equal to Lead Time
C. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of the latest work orders for the asset
D. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by
PM
E. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of the latest work order for the
asset
Answer: AD

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NO.30 Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item Master
application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is
managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are created
in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2040-923
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration )
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NO.1 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one
should take when setting up an IBM WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1.Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2.Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4.Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node foreach
portal
node in the cluster.
2.Federate each of these nodes into theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4.Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1.Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the ConfigEngine
tasks
to create a profile template.
2.Prepare the first node to communicateWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, and
use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks toconfigure the cluster and user registry.
3.Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4.Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the
cluster
setup.
D. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each
portal node in the cluster.
2.Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3.Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4.Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.2 George is gathering requirements for an IBM WebSphere Portal implementation. Among the
requirements is that the portal remembers the names of the most recently logged in users from a
particular browser, so that they are not required to log in each time they visit the site. How would
George
best implement this requirement?
A. George has to create a custom login portlet that reads and writes from a cookie that he has to
define.
B. George has to develop a trust association interceptor that bypasses the portal login.
C. George has to implement a third-party authentication mechanism.
D. George can use the built-in Remember Me functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When setting up security for a stand-alone IBM WebSphere Portal profile that will become
part of a cluster, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Security should be set up on the stand-alone node prior to joining the deployment manager cell.
B. Security should be set up on the deployment manager cell after the node is added.
C. It makes no difference whether security is set up before or after the WebSphere Portal node joins
the
deployment manager cell.
D. The IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, not WebSphere Portal security tasks, should
be
used to configure security.
Answer: B

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NO.4 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.5 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Don isdesigning a highly-available, secure, high-traffic, public website for his company. If he
wants to use IBM WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone, WebSphere Portal server with disaster recovery.
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load-balancing solution, a WebSphere Portal
server
cluster with HTTP servers handling staticcontent, clustered LDAP servers and database servers.
C. A WebSphere Portal server cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached, storage
devices.
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a WebSphere Portal
server cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.10 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
Portal Configuration Wizard?
A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.12 If errors occur during the execution of ConfigEngine tasks, which of the following log files
contain the trace information for diagnosing the configuration issues?
A. ConfigTrace.log
B. ConfigEngine.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. SystemErr.log
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements correctly describes how IBM WebSphere Portal's
functionality is implemented on the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone, Java application using WebSphere Application
Server
client libraries.
B. WebSphere Portal is deployed as an enterprise application on the WebSphere Application Server.
C. WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere
Application
Server.
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's portlet container.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Bob needs to integrate IBM WebSphere Portal to handle tasks from several different backend
systems as a service. Bob can create tasks and specialized workflows using which of the following?
A. Unified Task Portlet
B. IBM Rational Application Developer Edition and Standard Portlet API
C. Unified Task Developer Edition and Collaborative Services API
D. Page Builder and Portlet Wires
Answer: A

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NO.15 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C4040-121
Exam Name: IBM (Virtualization Technical Support for IBM i -v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A customer has purchased a new BladeCenter H (BCH) and POWER blade to run IBM i. The
POWER blade is configured with two Fibre Channel interlaces for attaching SAN and tape.
They have an IBM TS3500 tape library with a fibre channel connection, and current firmware is
running through a fibre switch to another IBM i system. One port on the existing switch and one
port in the BCH fibre switch has been zoned to provide a connection from the tape library to the
BCH.
After IBM i 7.1 SLIC and base OS are installed on the blade from IBM distribution media, the tape
library does not appear in the device configuration.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The existing switch does not support NPIV.
B. NPIV enablement was omitted when configuring the BCH switch.
C. The BCH switch configuration must match the link speed of the TS3500.
D. A switch-to-switch cable is required. A switch to device cable was shipped with the BCH by default.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In addition to Qshell and PASE, what other product needs to be installed on an IBM i partition
in order to remotely run scripts on an HMC?
A. IBM Portable Utilities for i
B. IBM i Integrated Server Support
C. IBM Cryptographic Service Provider
D. IBM Network Authentication Enablement for i
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has multiple POWERS 570 servers. The servers are controlled by multiple HMCs.
The customer is installing an additional Power 770 server in this environment but will retain their
existing HMCs. No updates to FSP or HMC levels have been made since installation of the
POWERS servers.
After reviewing the cover letters for ESP and HMC firmware levels, what updates are required to
support the addition of the new server into the network?
A. Update only the HMCs to the latest version.
B. Update only the FSPs to the latest release available.
C. Update the FSP5 and HMC5 of the existing systems to the minimum level required.
D. Update the POWERS ESPs to the most recent version available for the installed firmware
release. Update the HMCs to the most recent release available.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer wants two VIO Servers in the CEO of a proposed Power 720. To provide redundancy
for the IBM V7000 SAN they will utilize to provision disk for his client partitions.
What is the minimum required to make this possible?
A. A 6-disk storage backplane
B. An 8-disk storage backplane
C. A 6-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
D. An 8-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
Answer: C

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NO.5 Disk from a fibre-attached V7000 disk subsystem will be used for an IBM i partition. What type
of adapter is required in the IBM i partition?
A. SAS disk adapter
B. Virtual SAS adapter
C. Virtual SCSI adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator wants to share a fibre attached TS3100 tape library between multiple IBM i7.1
partitions. The system contains a PC #5774 - 4Gb fibre adapter and uses an IBM fibre switch. All
IBM i partitions are hosted by VIO Server (VIOS).
How could the administrator configure the sharing of the tape library?
A. Configure NPIV within VIOS, then configure each partition to use NPIV to share the tape library.
B. Create a script that can be called after each backup job in a partition finishes, which will move
the fibre adapter to the next partition
C. In the HMC, select the host Power System, then select Operations - Schedule Operations -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
D. In the HMC, select the VIOS partition, then select Operations - Schedule Operations - Options -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer needs two client IBM i partitions on a 4-core Power 720, with storage hosted by
VIO Server. What is the least expensive method to manage this environment?
A. HMC
B. Virtual Partition Manager
C. Integrated Virtualization Manager
D. Systems Director Navigator for PowerVM
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client IBM i 7.1 partition is being hosted by dual VIO Server partitions (VIOS-1 & VIOS-2). A
Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) has been created in order to provide Ethernet failover capability
for the IBM i partition. The IBM i partition will use the Ethernet resources of the VIO Server
partitions.
How many virtual Ethernet adapters need to be defined on the HMCI in the IBM i client, and VIO
Server partition profiles to support SEA and failover?
A. IBM i Client: 1 adapter:
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
B. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
C. IBM i Client: 1 adapter
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
D. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C4090-959
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Sales V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A sales specialist is discussing FO SAN with a customer, who says that it is not the right
solution
for the company’s needs. The customer has another solution in mind but has forgotten the exact
name of it, saying only that it has something to do with the LAN.
Which term is the customer most likely trying to articulate?
A. SAS
B. WAN
C. SATA
D. SCSI
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer with storage arrays from a number of vendors is looking at EMC and IBM storage
management tools. What should the sales specialist discuss with this customer?
A. EMC Unisphere manages IBM and EMC storage arrays
B. EMC can deploy a single solution to manage HDS and EMC
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can only manage the IBM storage arrays
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can manage SMI-S compliant storage from a single
management console
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one clear advantage of IBM’s TS3500 Tape Library over Oracle’s SL-8500 Library?
A. FC0E connectivity
B. Higher number of robots
C. Modularity of storage units
D. Capability for handling mixed media
Answer: C

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6. A customer has a number of non-IBM storage arrays, which are capable of provisioning using
only
traditional RAID volumes. Over-allocation of storage is an issue on some arrays and not on others.
In order to balance storage use across the arrays, the customer wishes to virtualize the
environment.
Which advantage would IBM SAN Volume Controller provide over EMC VPLEX?
A. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
B. SAN Volume Controller can provide Real-time Compression to reduce capacity if the array
supports compression.
C. SAN Volume Controller can provide block-level deduplication to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
D. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity if the array
supports thin provisioning.
Answer: A

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7. A customer tells the sales specialist that the cost for high performance storage is too
expensive,
especially for data that is infrequently accessed.
Which technology allows them to assign types of data to different types of storage media in order
to reduce costs?
A. Data archival
B. Storage tiering
C. Thin provisioning
D. Storage virtualization
Answer: B

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8. A company wants additional storage for their database system and has been looking at HP
competitive disk proposals as a solution. When discussing IBM’s solutions with the company’s
010, the sales specialist learns that the company is directly attaching the HP disk and is buying
fewer, larger capacity drives.
Based on this information, which financial justification is this customer using?
A. Price/performance
B. Return on investment
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Total cost of acquisition
Answer: D

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9. A sales specialist discusses system acquisition requirements with a company’s OFO, who
states,
“our final evaluation will be based on hard dollars, but l still want to see what kind of value I’m
getting with the solution we choose.”
How is this customer performing the purchasing analysis?
A. TOA
B. TCO
C. NPV
D. ROI
Answer: D

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10. The PRIMARY purpose of the SAN Volume Controller is to provide which function?
A. Increased performance
B. Storage virtualization
C. Merging multiple LANs and SANs into one
D. Replication within a single storage array (homogeneous)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is looking for a small VTL that comes standard with deduplication as well as with
atleast4 TB of usable capacity which can grow to 20 TB.
Which IBM solution should be proposed to this customer?
A. TS7610
B. TS7680
C. T37650
D. TS7650G
Answer: C

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NO.5 A mainframe customer who utilizes 3490 tape is interested in reducing their need for tape and
would like to compare offerings from IBM and Oracle.
Which competitive product from Oracle should the specialist gather information on?
A. VSM
B. VSP
C. VPLEX
D. Bus-Tech
Answer: A

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