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Exam Code: L50-503
Exam Name: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.2 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.4 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.7 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.14 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.16 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.20 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: GCIH
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Certified Incident Handler)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 335 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc. Which of the following types of
Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or
modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.3 Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
Answer: D

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NO.4 Buffer overflows are one of the major errors used for exploitation on the Internet today. A buffer
overflow occurs when a particular operation/function writes more data into a variable than the variable
was designed to hold.
Which of the following are the two popular types of buffer overflows?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Dynamic buffer overflows
B. Stack based buffer overflow
C. Heap based buffer overflow
D. Static buffer overflows
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack
releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security features
such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering on his wireless
router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is sometimes 16 Mbps and
sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management utility wireless router and finds
out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through his wireless connection. Paul checks the
router's logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C

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NO.7 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He performs Web vulnerability scanning on the We-are-secure server. The
output of the scanning test is as follows:
C:\whisker.pl -h target_IP_address
-- whisker / v1.4.0 / rain forest puppy / www.wiretrip.net -- = - = - = - = - =
= Host: target_IP_address
= Server: Apache/1.3.12 (Win32) ApacheJServ/1.1
mod_ssl/2.6.4 OpenSSL/0.9.5a mod_perl/1.22
+ 200 OK: HEAD /cgi-bin/printenv
John recognizes /cgi-bin/printenv vulnerability ('Printenv' vulnerability) in the We_are_secure server.
Which of the following statements about 'Printenv' vulnerability are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. This vulnerability helps in a cross site scripting attack.
B. 'Printenv' vulnerability maintains a log file of user activities on the Website, which may be useful for the
attacker.
C. The countermeasure to 'printenv' vulnerability is to remove the CGI script.
D. With the help of 'printenv' vulnerability, an attacker can input specially crafted links and/or other
malicious scripts.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of running
the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be used as
tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.9 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to train the
members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the incident response
team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN.
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable to its
users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following tools is used for vulnerability scanning and calls Hydra to launch a dictionary
attack?
A. Whishker
B. Nessus
C. SARA
D. Nmap
Answer: B

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NO.12 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a
countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability
from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against __________.
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
Answer: A

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NO.13 John works as a Professional Penetration Tester. He has been assigned a project to test the Website
security of www.we-are-secure Inc. On the We-are-secure Website login page, he enters ='or''=' as a
username and successfully logs on to the user page of the Web site. Now, John asks the we-aresecure
Inc. to improve the login page PHP script. Which of the following suggestions can John give to improve
the security of the we-are-secure Website login page from the SQL injection attack?
A. Use the escapeshellarg() function
B. Use the session_regenerate_id() function
C. Use the mysql_real_escape_string() function for escaping input
D. Use the escapeshellcmd() function
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are the primary goals of the incident handling team?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Freeze the scene.
B. Repair any damage caused by an incident.
C. Prevent any further damage.
D. Inform higher authorities.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It records all keystrokes on the victim's computer in a predefined log file.
B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.
C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.
D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.16 Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It disrupts services to a specific computer.
B. It changes the configuration of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. It saturates network resources.
D. It disrupts connections between two computers, preventing communications between services.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.18 Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of the
following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D

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NO.19 Choose and reorder the steps of an incident handling process in their correct order.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. Company has a Windows-based network. All
computers run on Windows XP. Manager of the Sales department complains Adam about the unusual
behavior of his computer. He told Adam that some pornographic contents are suddenly appeared on his
computer overnight. Adam suspects that some malicious software or Trojans have been installed on the
computer. He runs some diagnostics programs and Port scanners and found that the Port 12345, 12346,
and 20034 are open. Adam also noticed some tampering with the Windows registry, which causes one
application to run every time when Windows start.
Which of the following is the most likely reason behind this issue?
A. Cheops-ng is installed on the computer.
B. Elsave is installed on the computer.
C. NetBus is installed on the computer.
D. NetStumbler is installed on the computer.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A

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NO.22 Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just bought a
brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam uses antivirus software,
anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft patches. After another month of
working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even more noticeably slow. He also notices a
window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly disappear. He has seen these windows show up,
even when he has not been on the Internet. Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free
space available. Since his hard drive is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem.?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A

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NO.23 In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes to
the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
Answer: A

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NO.24 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
StackGuard (as used by Immunix), ssp/ProPolice (as used by OpenBSD), and Microsoft's /GS option use
______ defense against buffer overflow attacks.
A. canary
Answer: A

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NO.25 You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer. Using
the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following?
A. Brute force attack
B. Mail bombing
C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. mutt
B. scp
C. rsync
D. smbclient
Answer: D

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NO.27 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
Answer: D

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NO.29 Adam, a malicious hacker, wants to perform a reliable scan against a remote target. He is not
concerned about being stealth at this point.
Which of the following type of scans would be most accurate and reliable?
A. UDP sacn
B. TCP Connect scan
C. ACK scan
D. Fin scan
Answer: B

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NO.30 You see the career section of a company's Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You
conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server 2003
and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are you using to
perform hacking?
A. Scanning
B. Covering tracks
C. Reconnaissance
D. Gaining access
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following processes describes the statement below?
"It consists of the processes required to ensure that the project contains all the work required to complete
the project effectively."
A. Project communications management
B. Project scope management
C. Risk management
D. Project human resource management
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are a Project Manager in your organization who is managing a considerably huge budget project
to develop new software. Considering the varied nature of your stakeholder group, you would like to put
together a plan as to what information the stakeholders need, and how to provide that information. What
is the document that you would need, and as part of which process group would you achieve this?
A. Communications Management Plan, Execution Process group
B. Project Management Plan, Planning Process Group
C. Communications Management Plan, Planning Process Group
D. Project Management Plan, Initiating Process Group
Answer: C

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NO.3 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. A new project has been proposed to change all keyboards
of every computer in your organization. There are 1,600 keyboards that will need to be removed and
replaced with wireless keyboards. What document will you first need to start this project?
A. Project risk statement
B. Risk register
C. Project charter
D. Contract for new keyboards
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are the characteristics of the project life cycle?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, are high as the work is carried out, and decrease as the project
comes towards the end.
B. Stakeholders influences, risk, and uncertainty are at peak in the beginning of the project.
C. Skills to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without much impact on cost, is at
peak in the beginning of the project and reduces as the project progresses towards completion.
D. It is limited by constraints, including resource constraints.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing steps to carry out and finish the
project according to the measures drawn through the planning stage. Which of the following stages of the
project are you working on?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Closing
C. Initiation
D. Execution
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are the project manager of the NHT Project. This project has 12,345 office doors to install
throughout a campus. Each of the doors costs the project $456 and requires special hardware to
electronically lock and open the doors. You've gathered the project team before they begin the installation
for a hands-on training. As a group you and the project team install 50 doors following a checklist of
instructions so that every door will be installed exactly the same throughout the campus and with minimal
waste. This is an example of what project execution technique?
A. Preventive action
B. Implemented corrective action
C. Quality control
D. Defect repair validation
Answer: A

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NO.7 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You report the project details directly to the vice president
and the administrator of your organization. In which of the following types of organization structures are
you working?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Jury
D. Projectized
Answer: B

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NO.8 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following stages of the process group, if not
performed well by you, is unlikely that the project will be successful in meeting the business needs?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Initiation
C. Executing
D. Planning and design
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is described in the statement below.?
"It is a group of sequential and related project phases that are defined by the organization and control
needs of the management or organizations concerned with the project, the nature of the project itself, and
the application area."
A. Verify scope
B. Project charter
C. Activity list
D. Project life cycle
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following techniques is described in the statement below?
"It evaluates the abstract early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates for all activities devoid
of any resource limitations by performing a forward and backward pass analysis through the schedule
network."
A. Resource utilization
B. Critical path method
C. Critical Chain method
D. Resource leveling heuristic
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are the program manager for your project. You are working with the project managers regarding
the procurement processes for their projects. You have ruled out one particular contract type because it is
considered too risky for the program. Which one of the following contract types is usually considered to be
the most dangerous for the buyer?
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. Time and materials
C. Cost plus percentage of costs
D. Fixed fee
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following components of EVA is described in the statement below?
"It is a measure of how much of the project value has been earned so far through completed work, that is,
the budgeted cost of the work that has been performed through the project status date."
A. PV
B. AC
C. SV
D. EV
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is described in the statement below?
"It is a tool that defines a project and groups the project's discrete work elements in a way that helps
organize and define the total work scope of the project."
A. WBS
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. Critical path
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are in a project to create a Website. Your project team has met a few times and you're working
with them to develop the project's WBS. Jan, a marketing expert, is in disagreement with Larry over how
the Website should function. Gary and Gina are in disagreement over who'll take the lead on the design of
the software for the Website. Mark, Mary, and Martha are all bickering about the photo management
approach for the Website's pictures. What stage of team development is your project team currently in?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Norming
Answer: B

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NO.15 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing a task to generate a hierarchical list of
resources related by function and resource type that is used to facilitate planning and controlling of project
work. Which of the following components of project management will you use to accomplish the above
task?
A. PERT chart
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. WBS
Answer: B

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NO.16 Diane is the project manager of the HGF Project. A risk that has been identified and analyzed in the
project planning processes is now coming into fruition. What individual should respond to the risk with the
preplanned risk response?
A. Diane
B. Risk owner
C. Subject matter expert
D. Project sponsor
Answer: B

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NO.17 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following techniques will you use to
determine whether particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased
from the outside sources?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Make-or-Buy Analysis
C. Contract Types
D. Procurement Negotiations
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project charter
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project scope statement
D. Develop project team
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following processes will you use to formalize
the acceptance of the completed project deliverables?
A. Verify scope
B. Report performance
C. Expert judgment
D. Perform quality control
Answer: A

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NO.20 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on several projects. Your projects vary in
size and budget. You have to calculate the ratios of schedule and cost compared to plan, so that you can
compare relative schedule and cost performance of each project. Which of the following components of
EVM provide measures of schedule and cost performance that are not affected by the size of the project?
A. BAC and EAC
B. CPI and SPI
C. CV and SV
D. PV and EV
Answer: B

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NO.21 Charlie has just completed the project according to the terms of the contract. She and the customer
are completing a walk through of the project deliverables, and the customer is asking for changes to the
deliverables before she'll accept the product. What project management process should manage the
documented change request that may come from scope verification?
A. Scope management
B. Perform integrated change control
C. Control Scope
D. Control change control
Answer: B

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NO.22 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on a project that has a budget of
$805,000 and you have completed 45 percent of the project work. Due to some errors, however, you have
actually spent $430,000 of the budget. Management wants to know the project's cost performance index.
Which of the following values will you report?
A. 0.87
B. 0.80
C. 0.84
D. 0.86
Answer: C

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NO.23 James works as the project manager for a software project. He and his team are on the Direct and
Manage Project Execution process. All of the following are inputs of this process except for which one?
A. Project charter
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Approved environmental requests
E. Project management plan
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are a new Project Manager that has been entrusted with a software development project that is in
progress. A sub-contracting company has been awarded a cost reimbursable contract to do the
development work on this project, and the project has been completed. While trying to close this
procurement, you discover that still there are some unresolved claims. However, the sub contract
company does not accept that these claims are unresolved. Which of the following is the best method for
reaching the final equitable settlement?
A. Litigation
B. Mediation
C. Direct negotiation
D. Alternative dispute resolution
Answer: C

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NO.25 You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, a project stakeholder, is demanding that you
add some deliverables to your project scope for free. You explain to Marcy that it's too late in the project
execution to consider adding these deliverables, as most of the software your project team is creating is
nearly done. Marcy and you escalate the issue to management.
Management decides that you will add the deliverables to the project scope if Marcy pays a significant fee
and allows you additional time to complete the project. What conflict resolution method has management
offered?
A. Issue management
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Confronting
Answer: B

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NO.26 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the
following documents are reviewed during the project kickoff meeting?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Project budget
B. Project WBS
C. Project charter
D. Project scope
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.27 Which of the following are the characteristics of a project?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Its success is measured by evaluating whether it meets or exceeds expectations of the stakeholders.
B. It is temporary in nature and has a definite beginning and ending date.
C. It is completed when the project goals are achieved.
D. It is common in nature.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.28 You are using the PDCA model to determine, implement, monitor, control, and maintain Information
Security Management System or ISMS. You have to evaluate the new processes and match up to the
results against the probable results to determine the differences. In which of the following phases of the
PDCA are you working?
A. Do
B. Act
C. Plan
D. Check
Answer: D

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NO.29 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You have to subdivide project
deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following
processes will you use to perform the above task?
A. Create WBS
B. Verify scope
C. Control scope
D. Define activities
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project scope statement
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project charter
D. Develop project team
Answer: C

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NO.1 Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are
spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online.
Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest
percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
Answer: D

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NO.2 Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to
determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have created four different ads for a client. The client is pleased, but wants to know how Google
AdWords selects which sponsored links ad to display. How does Google AdWords chooses the ad to
display?
A. The AdWords system shows each ad once before rotating to the next ad.
B. The manager of the ad must determine the orderand frequency of the ad to be displayed.
C. The AdWords system automatically rotates among the different ad variations and shows the
better-performing variation more.
D. The AdWords system shows each ad for 100 impressions and then rotates to the next ad.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she's hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery.
She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad - rather than
advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for
Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
Answer: D

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NO.5 Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in
managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her.
How can the SEO firm now manage Beth's account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth's account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth's account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth's account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A

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NO.6 Linda has a discount clothing store and she'd like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her
store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google
AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following
options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
Answer: A

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NO.8 John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the
Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network.
How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the
Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network - once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your client wants to use Google AdWords' ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video
ad for your customer?
A. You'll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You'll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Amy is new to Google AdWords and she's curious about the policies Google requires for
participants and their ads. Which one of the following is NOT of the Google AdWords policy categories.?
A. Link policies
B. Editorial and format policies
C. Image policies
D. Content policies
Answer: C

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NO.11 Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have image
editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google
Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You're serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client,
is new to Web-based business sales and he's concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob
the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his
ad for a short period of time. What's the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for
Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A

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NO.13 Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used
car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred's ad to be displayed?
A. Car that's been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their
ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option
would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D

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NO.15 What term is assigned to the concept of measuring your profit that you've made from advertising
compared to how much you've spent on that advertising?
A. ROI
B. Sunk costs
C. CTR
D. CPM
Answer: A

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NO.16 Frank is managing a Google AdWords ad group for his travel agency. Frank wants to make certain that
his ad appears in Google when someone searches for Montana cabin rentals. Which one ofthe following
matching options would ensure that Frank's ad would appear when this exact phrase exclusively is used?
A. [Montana cabin rentals]
B. "Montana cabin rentals"
C. -Montana cabin rentals
D. Montana cabin rentals
Answer: A

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NO.17 Google uses multiple approaches, such as IP addressing, to determine the language and location of
users searching for particular keywords. What term is given to the Google analysis of the search term,
such as Tampa doctors, to determine where a user may be originating their search from?
A. Google AdWords search analysis
B. Qualitative analysis
C. Quantitative analysis
D. Query parsing
Answer: D

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NO.18 Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where
the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the
geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
Answer: B

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NO.19 Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best
explanation of Google's double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or
similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business
operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the
advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar
businesses.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality
score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you've elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you've elected to target affects how the quality score is
calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content
placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It's calculated using a variety of
factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user's search query.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What does defense in depth refer to?
A. storing the firewall below ground
B. centralizing your security into one point
C. having more than one layer of protection
D. having different types of firewall on your network
Answer: C

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NO.2 Proxy servers operate at which TCP/IP layer?
A. security
B. application
C. host-to-host
D. network interface
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two does the proxy service SOCKS Version 5 provide? (choose two)
A. keystroke logging
B. WINS name service
C. TCP-based services
D. Strong authentication schemes
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What is one-to one Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. It is a service that translates only one originator address at a time.
B. It is a service that translate all originator addresses with a single translated address.
C. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with a unique translated
address.
D. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with one of many translated
addresses.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is true about removing command line tools on Web servers?
A. It limits footholds for an attacker
B. It is common in default installations
C. It is an example of security through obscurity
D. It reduces security because of fewer administrator tools
Answer: A

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NO.6 From a network security standpoint, TFTP should be used_______
A. to authenticate to a Web server
B. whenever you need a simple file transfer mechanism
C. in place of FTP to provide better authentication and tracking
D. in a limited capacity with the least amount of privilege possible
Answer: D

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NO.7 It is most likely for unencrypted data to be sniffed across which connection?
A. dial-up
B. 802.11b
C. DSL/cable
D. Internet OC-3
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which desired design philosophies are demonstrated by the "belt-and suspenders"
architecture?
A. least privilege and simplicity
B. simplicity and diversity of defense
C. universal participation and least privilege
D. diversity of defense and defense in depth
E. defense in depth and universal participation
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are three functions performed by the IPSec protocol? (choose three)
A. providing encrypted tunnels between gateways
B. providing encrypted multicast traffic across enterprises
C. ensuring integrity of unencrypted data between routers
D. providing encrypted connections between workstations and servers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Your Windows PCs rely on n Network Neighborhood to gain access to resources.
Your users are widely reporting resources missing.
What is likely the problem?
A. You are currently under a denial of service attack.
B. Your systems have been infected with a Trojan Horse.
C. Directed broadcasts have been disabled at your routers.
D. Updated internet firewall rules have prevented the NBT protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When installing an OS on a new platform, what is recommended?
A. encrypt all system files
B. apply all of the vendors patches
C. delete all admin accounts left by the installation
D. wait and see if problems develop before applying patches to minimize down time.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What should you remember when using a plug or generic proxy?
A. Logging is extremely difficult
B. It cannot detect IP spoofing attacks
C. It adds no application specific checking
D. It cannot be tied to a particular service or protocol
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the most significant problem solved by public-key cryptography?
A. key recovery
B. key exchange
C. key generation
D. key distribution
Answer: D

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NO.14 Echo and Chargen services are most often used for_________
A. measuring load on a local system
B. maliciously inducing stress on networks
C. creating L2 TP tunnels between networks
D. forwarding connections between systems
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are two uses of the TCP wrappers package?
A. It logs all TCP connections.
B. It provides granular access control to TCP services.
C. It encapsulates TCP segments inside other protocols to bypass firewall.
D. It prevents external hosts from initiating TCP-based applications on internal servers.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which attack is made easier by poor TCP/IP implementations?
A. IP spoofing
B. Password guessing
C. Network PING sweeps
D. TCP sequence guessing
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three are protocols or services used for authentication functions? (choose
three)
A. NTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. TAPI
E. RADIUS
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Which two assurances does digitally signing a file or message provide? (choose two)
A. time stamping
B. data integrity
C. non-repudiation
D. confidentiality
Answer: B, C

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NO.19 What is the weakest aspect of the DES cryptographic algorithm in protecting
sensitive information?
A. The complexity of the algorithm makes it too slow for day-to day use.
B. Automated attacks at guessing all possible keys have been demonstrated.
C. The block size of the algorithm is too small to handle large amounts of data.
D. The source code of the algorithm is widely available and may prove to have flaws.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the most secure means of administering a router?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. Web GuI
D. Serial Connection
Answer: D

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