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Exam Code: ST0-093
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

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NO.11 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

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NO.14 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

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NO.18 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

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NO.20 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ASC-091
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Protection 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.4 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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NO.5 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.12 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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NO.15 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.19 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.6 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.7 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.11 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.13 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.14 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.15 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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Exam Name: Network Appliance (NCIE - Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam)
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Total Q&A: 216 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 SnapVault supports a multi-vendor storage infrastructure environment.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.2 SnapVault is a disk-based backup solution that _____. (Choose three.)
A.enables backup of heterogeneous primary storage systems to a NetApp secondary storage system
B.enables restoration of data from a SnapVault secondary storage system, with minimum downtime and
better reliability than tape-based backup and restore
C.requires both NetApp primary and secondary storage systems
D.enables data stored on multiple NetApp storage systems to be backed up to a central secondary
system as read-only Snapshot copies
Correct:B C D

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NO.3 Without the nearstore_option license installed, what are the total concurrent SnapVault
transfer streams for the FAS3020/3050?
A.16 for FC drives and 8 for SATA drives
B.8 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives
C.32 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives
D.16 for FC drives and 32 for SATA drives
Correct:A

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NO.4 SnapVault allows data to be _____.
A.centralized for enterprise-wide data management and allows backup applications to control native
backup and recovery facilities in NetApp storage systems
B.recovered from a corrupted database, application, or damaged file system in less than a minute,
regardless of the size of the volume being restored
C.backed up via Snapshot and transferred on a scheduled basis to a destination NearStore appliance
D.virtualized and tightly integrated with Microsoft NTFS, providing a layer of abstraction between
application data and its physical storage
Correct:C

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NO.5 What are three NetApp backup and recovery solutions based on Snapshot technology?
(Choose three.)
A.SnapVault
B.OSSV
C.VTL
D.SnapManager products
Correct:A B D

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NO.6 Which two NetApp products support heterogeneous storage environments? (Choose two.)
A.NearStore VTL
B.SnapVault
C.OSSV
D.StoreVault
Correct:A C

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NO.7 What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)
A.Primary System
B.Secondary System
C.OSSV agent installed on the primary system
D.OSSV agent installed on the secondary system
E.NetApp primary system
Correct:A B C

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NO.8 A-SIS optimization can be configured at _____.
A.the volume level only
B.the aggregate level only
C.both the aggregate and volume levels
D.the qtree level
Correct:A

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NO.9 When a SnapVault Secondary requests an incremental backup from the primary, the SnapVault
Primary creates a new snapshot and compares it to the most recent ONTAP-scheduled snapshot
in order to identify the changed data blocks.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which two events occur when a volume with qtrees is backed up using SnapVault from Primary
to Secondary? (Choose two.)
A.Qtrees in Primary are stored as qtrees on Secondary.
B.Qtrees in Primary are stored as directories on Secondary.
C.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a qtree.
D.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a volume.
Correct:B C

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NO.11 The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)
A.QSM
B.VSM
C.SyncMirror
D.Snapshot
Correct:A D

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of concurrent A-SIS sessions on a NetApp controller?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Correct:C

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NO.14 What is RTO?
A.the amount of time that an organization will NOT have access to lost data while the data is being
recovered
B.the amount of time that an organization will take to recover their data
C.the time-out period for remote device access
D.the recorded time of the data outage
Correct:A

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NO.15 Tape backups are widely used because they are considered the most secure form of media
backup.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous
data storage?
A.Snapshot copies
B.SnapManager
C.SnapVault
D.Open System SnapVault
Correct:D

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NO.17 What are two applications that can manage Open Systems SnapVault-based backup
environments via NDMP? (Choose two.)
A.NetApp Protection Manager
B.Legato Networker
C.Symantec NetBackup
D.Syncsort Backup Express
Correct:A D

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NO.18 From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore?
(Choose three.)
A.IBM AIX
B.SunOS
C.HP HP-UX
D.Linux
E.Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003
F.SGI IRIX
Correct:A C D

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NO.19 In which two situations is Snapshot the preferred strategy for backup and recovery? (Choose
two.)
A.when file systems or raw partitions consist of a single LUN
B.when file systems span multiple LUNs via Volume Manager Enterprise or a similar product
C.when selective restoration of files within the LUN is a requirement
D.when offloading the majority of backup overhead from the host system is a requirement
Correct:A D

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NO.20 The SnapVault Secondary is configured for user access of qtrees via NAS. How do you restore a
file?
A.by using SnapRestore
B.by using the SnapVault GUI
C.by users with sufficient privileges
D.by only storage administrators with sufficient privileges
Correct:C

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NO.1 Which two commands can be used to enable LUN reservations? (Choose two.)
A.lun create
B.lun map
C.lun reservation set
D.lun set reservation
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which three protocols can coexist on a NetApp storage system? (Choose three.)
A.CIFS
B.DAFS
C.DFS
D.FCP
E.NFS
Answer: ADE

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NO.3 In a tape environment after a SnapRestore reversion of a volume, incremental backup and restore
operations on the file or volume cannot rely on the timestamps to determine what data needs to be
backed up or restored. Which course of action ensures correct incremental backups?
A.Perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
B.Reboot the storage system to reset timestamps back to their original times before the reversion.
C.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup.
D.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup,
and then perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
Answer: A

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NO.4 NTFS allows file access based on ___________.
A.NT ACLs and SID.
B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C.SID and password.
D.UNIX permissions.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three licenses are required for fabric-attached MetroCluster? (Choose three.)
A.Cluster
B.Cluster_remote
C.Syncmirror_local
D.Syncmirror_fabric
E.Syncmirror_remote
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 Which changes the NDMP password on the Open System SnapVault agent?
A.password
B.password
C.svpasswd
D.svpassword
Answer: D

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NO.7 Host multi-pathing describes a _________ solution that has at least two distinct _________ paths to a
LUN.
A.FC or IP SAN, physical
B.FC or IP SAN, virtual
C.FC SAN, virtual
D.token ring, physical
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which set of protocols provide block-level access to NetApp storage?
A.CIFS and NFS
B.HTTP and FTP
C. iSCSI and FCP
D.SNA and RPC
Answer: C

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NO.9 Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode supports SMB 2.0 in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.10 To configure a storage system as a member of a Windows active directory domain, the time on the
storage system must be set to be within plus or minus five minutes of the time on the domain controller.
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.11 To determine the version of Data ONTAP in which a bug has been fixed, use the NOW site _______
utility. (Choose two.)
A.AutoSupport
B.Bugs Online
C.NetApp Diagnostics
D.Release Comparison
E.System Configuration Guide
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Which are three characteristics of an iSCSI or FCP SAN implementation? (Choose three.)
A.A LUN can be converted into a VLD.
B.LUNs can be accessed using the FCP protocol.
C.LUNs can be accessed using the iSCSI protocol.
D.Block services are associated with an iSCSI or FCP SAN environment.
Answer: BCD

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NO.13 Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous SnapMirror?
(Choose three.)
A.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - sync
B.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - 0-55/5 * * *
C.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync
D.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 If the security style is set to UNIX, CIFS client file access is determined by ___________ .
A.NT ACLs
B.the last client to set permissions
C.the mapped UNIX UID/GID of the CIFS client and the UNIX file permissions
D.This is not allowed: A CIFS client cannot access files in a path set to a security style of UNIX
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which three items are NFS resources for export? (Choose three.)
A.aggregate
B.directory/qtree
C.file
D.subnet
E.volume
Answer: BCE

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NO.16 For automatic user name mapping to occur for a CIFS and UNIX user name that are the same, you
must do what?
A.Enter the CIFS user in the NIS database.
B.Enter the user names in the /etc/hosts.equiv file.
C.Use both a NIS server and a Domain Controller in the network.
D.Nothing: mapping will occur if user name authentication is available.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What utility on the storage system will allow you to capture network packet information?
A.netstats
B.pktt
C.snoop
D.traceroute
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two will allow you to read and analyze a packet trace file generated by the storage system?
(Choose two.)
A.Eternal View
B.Netmon
C.pktt
D.WireShark
Answer: BD

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NO.19 An iSCSI or FC SAN implementation provides _____ access to LUNs.
A.block
B.file
C.VIIP
D.VLD
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two commands on the storage system allow you to gather detailed statistics about network
interfaces, including basic information about network connections? (Choose two.)
A.ifstat -a
B.netdiag -n
C.netstat -i
D.sysstat 1
Answer: AC

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NO.1 For which of the following purposes can you use the Description field in the Variable groups form?
A.To have its content displayed as a tab name in the Product Builder configuration form.
B.To have its content displayed as a help text in the Product Builder configuration form.
C.To hold product model designer's comments about the modeling variable.
D.To hold notes to the Production Department about how the item is to be produced. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are a Product Designer in the Contoso Company responsible for creating product models. Among
the customers of the company, the most popular configuration of a home theater item is the one with LCD
television and five speakers. You are asked by the Order Processor to make the "LCD" and "five" values
default for the Television and Speakers variables. You added these variables to the Default values form
and now must fill the Valid for (Customer relation) and Valid for (Item relation) fields for each variable.
What must you select in these two fields for each variable?
A.Table and All
B.All and Table
C.All and All
D.Table and Table WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are a Product Designer in the Contoso Company. The company opens a new subsidiary in Russia.
The Product Builder configuration forms must be translated to Russian to be used by local employees.
How can you make the Product Builder configuration forms available in Russian?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Add Russian to the Available languages in the Product Builder parameters form.
B.Type the translation in the form that opens after clicking Language texts in the Modeling variables form.
C.Type the translation in the Translation table located under Product Builder > Setup.
D.Type the translation in the form that opens after clicking Language texts in the Variable group form.
WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: BD

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NO.4 You are a Product Designer in the Contoso Company. You create a product model for a home theater.
The theater has the following options:
Television: CRT, LCD, Plasma
Number of speakers: 2, 3, 5
Speaker height: 30.5, 45.5, 50.5
Which type of variables do you use to make each option available in the Product Builder configuration
form?
A.Enumerated text variable for the first option, Integer for the second, and Real for the third
B.Enumerated text variable for the first option, Real for the second, and Integer for the third
C.Enumerated text variables for the first and third options, and Real for the second
D.Enumerated text variable for the first, second, and third options WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the mandatory steps to take to make the user profiles functional?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Attach user profiles to employees.
B.Assign user profiles to variables.
C.Attach user profiles to Microsoft Dynamics AX users.
D.Activate user profiles in the Product Builder parameters form. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: AB

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NO.6 You are a Product Designer responsible for creating product models. Your task is to create a model for
a home theater. The home theater dimension calculation you plan to implement in the modeling tree is
rather complex and depends on a number of factors. If this calculation fails, you want the user to view an
error message and to abort the configuration. What must you implement to abort the configuration if the
calculation fails?
A.Create an Action rule.
B.Create a Constraint rule.
C.Create a Message node of the error type. It automatically aborts the configuration.
D.It is not necessary to implement anything. In case some calculation fails the configuration is always
aborted and a standard error message is displayed. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: C

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NO.7 For which of the following options can you set up default values in a product model?
A.all modeling variables
B.all modeling variables and all calculation variables
C.all variable groups
D.only item groups WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are a Product Designer responsible for creating a table constraint. Now it is time to add it to the
product model. How can you accomplish this?
A.Add the table constraint to the model as one of the validation rules.
B.Attach the table constraint to the model from the Table constraints form.
C.Add the table constraint to the Table constraints tab and then add related modeling variables to the
Modeling variables tab.
D.Add the table constraint to the Table constraints tab. Related Table variables are added to the model
automatically. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: D

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NO.9 For what purpose do you create global rules?
A.To use them as templates when creating rules for the model.
B.To make them available for all the users, regardless of user profiles.
C.To be able to attach them to several product models.
D.To be able to automatically apply them to all the models created. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are a Product Designer in the Contoso Company responsible for creating a model for a
configurable projector. You want projector options to display on two separate tabs in the Product Builder
configuration form. General projector options must be displayed on the General tab, and options for the
projector lamp - on the Lamp tab. How can you achieve this?
A.Create two variable groups, name them accordingly and then add them to the model.
B.Use the template variable groups and name them General and Lamp when adding them to the model.
C.Open the Product Builder configuration form in the AOT, create and name tabs there.
D.Click Test model and edit the form that opens. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-294
Exam Name: Microsoft (Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 AD Infrastructure)
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Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest named contoso.com. A partner
organization has a forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests are set to the Windows 2000 forest functional
level. Domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com are set to Windows 2000 Native Mode.
You plan to create a forest trust relationship between contoso.com and fabrikam.com.
You need to be able to configure selective authentication for the trust relationship.
What should you do?
A. Raise the forest functional level on contoso.com and fabrikam.com to Windows Server 2003.
B. Raise the domain functional level on contoso.com and fabrikam.com to Windows Server 2003.
C. Raise the domain functional level and the forest functional level on contoso.com to Windows Server
2003.
D. Raise the domain functional level and the forest functional level on fabrikam.com to Windows Server
2003.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with three domains.
You plan to modify the Active Directory schema.
You need to identify the schema master for the forest.
What should you do?
A. Run the regsvr32 schmmgmt.dll command. Use the Active Directory Domains and Trusts snap-in.
B. Run the regsvr32 schmmgmt.dll command. Use the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in.
C. Use the Dsget command-line tool.
D. Use the Dsquery command-line tool.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your Windows Server 2003 environment consists of a single Active Directory directory service forest
with multiple domains. The forest functional level is set to Windows 2000 Server. Your company has a
main office and four branch offices. Each office has two domain controllers. The domain controllers in the
main office are global catalog servers.
In the branch offices, searches for some printers in Active Directory are slow.
You need to improve the performance of Active Directory printer searches in the four branch offices.
What should you do?
A. Enable universal group membership caching in each branch office.
B. Increase the number of domain controllers in each branch office.
C. Add global catalog services to each branch office.
D. Upgrade the forest functional level to Windows Server 2003.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with multiple domains. The
Schema FSMO role is held by one of the domain controllers in the forest root domain. The Domain
Naming Master FSMO role is held by one of the domain controllers in a child domain. All domain
controllers have Windows Server 2003 installed.
You need to upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2003 R2.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the adprep /forestprep command in the forest root domain.
B. Run the adprep /forestprep command in all the child domains.
C. Run the adprep /domainprep command in all the child domains only.
D. Run the adprep /domainprep command in all domains.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Your company s Windows Server 2003 environment consists of a single Active Directory directory
service forest. The forest has multiple domains and three sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Site1 is the
main office and has four domain controllers. Two of the domain controllers are global catalog servers.
Site2 is a branch office with two domain controllers. Site3 is a branch office with a slow and unreliable
WAN link and two domain controllers.
You need to improve user logon performance for users in Site2 and Site3.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Enable change notification between Site1 and Site2.
B. Enable change notification between Site1 and Site3.
C. Implement universal group membership caching in Site2.
D. Implement universal group membership caching in Site3.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with a forest root domain and a
child domain.
The company has a high rate of employee turnover, and administrators create several hundred user
accounts per week.
A domain controller in the child domain fails. Within several hours of the failure, administrators are unable
to create new user accounts within the child domain.
You need to ensure that administrators can create user accounts in the child domain.
What should you do?
A. Seize the PDC Emulator role in the child domain.
B. Seize the RID Master role in the child domain.
C. Seize the Infrastructure Master role in the child domain.
D. Create a new domain controller in the child domain, and configure it as a global catalog server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain. The company has five Active
Directory sites on the West coast and five Active Directory sites on the East coast. The West coast sites
and the East coast sites are in two separate hub-and-spoke configurations that are separated by a firewall.
All Active Directory replication between the West coast and East coast occurs between a single West
coast domain controller named WestDC1 and a single East coast domain controller named EastDC1.
You need to ensure that if WestDC1 fails, other West coast domain controllers continue to replicate with
each other, but not with East coast domain controllers.
What should you do?
A. Create site links between the West coast hub site and the West coast spoke sites.
B. Create a site link bridge between the West coast hub site and the East coast hub site.
C. Clear the Bridge all site links option and create a site link bridge for all the East coast sites.
D. Clear the Bridge all site links option and create a site link bridge for all the West coast sites.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with multiple domains. The
company has a main office with 1,000 users and a single branch office with 500 users. Each office is a
separate Active Directory site. The main office Active Directory site has two domain controllers with Global
Catalog services.
Company employees must be able to work in both offices.
You need to plan the placement and configuration of domain controllers.
What should you do?
A. Deploy two additional domain controllers in the main office Active Directory site.
B. Deploy global catalog servers in the branch office Active Directory site.
C. Enable change notification on the site link between the main office Active Directory site and the branch
office Active Directory site.
D. Disable change notification on the site link between the main office Active Directory site and the branch
office Active Directory site.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a single Active Directory directory service domain. You are preparing to create a child
domain. Your user account is in a global security group named Server Administrators. The Server
Administrators group is in the local Administrators group on all servers.
You need to install Active Directory on a server named Server1 to create the new child domain.
What should you do?
A. Have your user account added to the Domain Admins group.
B. Have your user account added to the Schema Admins group.
C. Have your user account added to the Enterprise Admins group.
D. Have your user account added to the Incoming Forest Trust Builders group.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have a single Active Directory directory service domain. Your domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.
Domain
controller
Site FSMO role or roles
Global catalog
server
DC1 Site1
Schema Master
Domain Naming Master
Yes
DC2 Site2 ? Yes
DC3 Site3 Infrastructure Master Yes
DC4 Site4 PDC Emulator No
File and print services are on servers in Site1. Microsoft Exchange Server is installed on servers in Site2.
The HR and user provisioning applications will be placed on servers in Site3.
You are planning placement of the RID Master FSMO role.
You need to ensure proper functionality of these applications within their sites during an extended WAN
outage.
On which domain controller should you place the RID Master role?
A. DC1
B. DC2
C. DC3
D. DC4
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest named contoso.com. A partner
organization has a forest named fabrikam.com. You create a forest trust relationship between
contoso.com and fabrikam.com.
You need to enable selective authentication between contoso.com and fabrikam.com.
Which tool should you use?
A. Netdom
B. Nltest
C. Dsacls
D. Ntdsutil
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your company has an Active Directory directory service forest with a forest root domain and a child
domain. You have two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. The two sites represent physical
locations that are connected by a WAN link.
All domain controllers are located in Site2. All users log on to the child domain. Several users in Site1 use
computers that run Windows NT 4.0 operating systems.
You configure a new domain controller for each domain, and you place the new domain controllers in
Site1.
You need to ensure that all users in Site1 can change their passwords in the event of a WAN link failure.
What should you do?
A. Transfer the root domain PDC Emulator role to a domain controller in Site1.
B. Transfer the child domain PDC Emulator role to a domain controller in Site1.
C. Transfer the root domain Infrastructure Master role to a domain controller in Site1.
D. Transfer the child domain Infrastructure Master role to a domain controller in Site1.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have a single Active Directory directory service domain. There is a branch office that connects to
the main office through a low-bandwidth WAN link.
The first domain controller is named DC1 and is located in the main office. The branch office has a single
server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2003.
You are preparing to install Active Directory on Server1. You back up the system state of DC1, and you
send the backup to the administrator at the branch office.
You need to make Server1 an additional domain controller in your domain, while minimizing the
bandwidth usage between the two offices.
What should you do?
A. Restore the system state data from DC1 to an alternate location on Server1. Run the dcpromo
command with the /adv parameter, and select the From these restored backup files option.
B. Restore the system state data from DC1 to the original location on Server1. Run the dcpromo
command with the /adv parameter, and select the From these restored backup files option.
C. Create a new Active Directory site. Create an unattended installation file with the
CriticalReplicationOnly parameter. Run the dcpromo command with the /answer parameter.
D. Create a new Active Directory site. Create an unattended installation file with the SiteName parameter
to place Server1 into the new site. Run the dcpromo command with the /answer parameter.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with a forest root domain and a
child domain. The child domain is set to the default domain functional level.
You install a second domain controller in the child domain by promoting a server named SVR1.
You need to rename SVR1 to DC2, and you must ensure that there will be no interruption in the ability of
client computers to authenticate to DC2, except during reboot.
What should you do?
A. Raise the domain functional level of the child domain to Windows 2000 native. Use System Properties
on SVR1 to rename SVR1 to DC2.
B. Raise the domain functional level of the child domain to Windows Server 2003. Run the netdom
command to rename SVR1 to DC2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of the child domain to Windows 2000 native. Run the dcpromo
command on SVR1 to remove Active Directory directory service. Use System Properties to rename SVR1
to DC2. Run the dcpromo command to re-install Active Directory.
D. Raise the domain functional level of the child domain to Windows Server 2003. Create a DNS CNAME
record for DC2.contoso.com that points to SVR1.contoso.com.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your company has a main office and a single branch office. The two offices are connected through a
WAN link. You have Active Directory directory service site objects for each office. Domain controllers are
associated with the appropriate site objects.
Users in the main office are currently authenticated by domain controllers in the branch office.
You need to ensure that users in the main office are authenticated by the domain controllers in the main
office.
What should you do?
A. Clear the Bridge all site links option.
B. Configure a preferred bridgehead server for the site for the main office.
C. Associate the subnets for the main office with the site for the main office.
D. Associate the subnets for the branch office with the site for the branch office.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your company has a Windows Server 2003 environment with a single Active Directory directory service
forest. The forest has multiple domains and two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 has six domain
controllers. Two of the domain controllers are global catalog servers. Site2 has three domain controllers.
The WAN link between Site1 and Site2 is slow.
You are preparing the environment for an Active Directory application that requires universal group
membership to make authorization decisions. Application servers will be located in Site1 and Site2.
You need to prepare the Active Directory environment for the introduction of the Active Directory
application.
What should you do?
A. Increase the number of domain controllers in Site2 to four.
B. Enable universal group membership caching in Site1.
C. Add additional global catalog servers to Site1.
D. Configure at least one of the domain controllers in Site2 to be a global catalog server.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with four domains. The domains
are named contoso.com, corp.contoso.com, fabrikam.com, and corp.fabrikam.com.
Users in the corp.contoso.com domain frequently access resources that are located in the
corp.fabrikam.com domain.
You need to improve user logon times from the corp.contoso.com domain to the corp.fabrikam.com
domain.
What should you do?
A. Enable universal group caching in sites where corp.contoso.com domain controllers are located.
B. Enable universal group caching in sites where corp.fabrikam.com domain controllers are located.
C. Create a shortcut trust from the corp.fabrikam.com domain to the corp.contoso.com domain.
D. Create a shortcut trust from the corp.contoso.com domain to the corp.fabrikam.com domain.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service forest with a forest root domain and a
child domain. The company has a main office and several branch offices. You are planning to remove the
child domain.
All of the domain controllers in the forest root domain are located in the main office, and all FSMO roles
are on separate domain controllers. The last domain controller in the child domain is named DC1 and is
located in a branch office.
You attempt to remove Active Directory from DC1, but you receive an error message stating that the
operation could not be completed.
You need to remove Active Directory from DC1.
What should you do?
A. Restore connectivity to the domain controller that holds the Domain Naming Master role.
B. Restore connectivity to the domain controller that holds the Schema Master role.
C. Restore connectivity to the domain controller that holds the Infrastructure Master role.
D. Restore connectivity to the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have a single Active Directory directory service domain. Your company has a main office and
multiple branch offices. Each office has an Active Directory site. The company s network is not fully
routed.
You need to ensure complete replication between the Active Directory sites.
What should you do?
A. Configure site links, and disable site link bridging.
B. Configure site links to use the SMTP transport, and enable site link bridging.
C. Configure a preferred bridgehead server for each branch office site.
D. Configure a preferred bridgehead server for the main office site.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain with three domain controllers.
You need to move domain-wide FSMO roles to a different domain controller.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts snap-in
B. Active Directory Sites and Services snap-in
C. Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in
D. Active Directory Schema snap-in
Answer: C

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