2013年10月30日星期三

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Exam Code: 3306
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

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NO.6 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

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Exam Code: RDCR08201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.2 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.3 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.4 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.5 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.6 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

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NO.8 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.11 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.12 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.13 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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NO.14 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.16 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.17 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

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NO.19 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

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NO.20 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.21 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.22 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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NO.23 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

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NO.24 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.25 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.26 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

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NO.27 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

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NO.28 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.29 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

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NO.30 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.1 Which two settings can you configure for the Sample option in the Properties tab of the Web
Intelligence Query panel? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable the "Fixed" option.
B. You can set the "Max retrieval time".
C. You can set the "Max rows retrieved".
D. You can specify a "Sample Result" set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three rules apply when you manually synchronize queries? (Choose three.)
A. Dimension value formats must be the same.
B. Dimensions with different names can be merged.
C. Dimensions with different data types can be merged.
D. Dimensions from multiple data sources can be merged.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which two methods can you use to apply report filters to a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose two.)
A. Block
B. Global
C. Custom
D. Dynamic
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web
Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Answer: D

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NO.8 How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Answer: E

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NO.9 You have created a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID) within InfoView
that has a single table block on a single report page. Where will a new object be displayed when you
add it to the query?
A. In a block
B. In a new report
C. In Query Panel
D. In Report Manager
E. In a new report page
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a server in the
Primary instance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 To activate a Group on an Agent Host in another RSA ACE/Server Realm, you would
A. enable External Authorization.
B. edit the Realm Secret of the Agent Host.
C. mark the Agent Host "Open to All Locally Known Users".
D. duplicate the Agent Host record in the Group's home Realm.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In Authentication Manager version 7.1 terminology, a "Server Node" is used to
A. Replicate the database in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
B. Gather and re-direct authentication requests from Agents to an available server.
C. Provide a stand-alone database available to either a Primary or Replica instance.
D. Provide additional authentication services in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Enabling the system parameter option "Store time of last login in token records"
A. increases authentication performance.
B. is required in order for Lock Manager to prevent replay attacks.
C. is required for accurate "Last Login" information in a Token Report.
D. only applies if the Agent Host is using the RSA ACE/Agent 5.0 Authentication Protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Offline Authentication feature is intended to allow
A. the capability for a user to temporarily disable the Agent software while the user is working
offline.
B. an RSA SecurID authentication to be processed by a Replica server when the Primary server
is offline.
C. a user to complete an RSA SecurID authentication through the local Agent if the local
Agent computer is offline.
D. several users to use a single RSA SecurID token so that they can share another user's
computer if their own computer is offline.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a component of the technology used within an RSA SecurID
token?
A. algorithm B.
private key C.
time source D.
seed record
Answer: B

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NO.1 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system,
and want the permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent
directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.2 As you become more involved in the security and networking of your organization,
you wish to learn the exact details of the protocols in use. It is suggested to you, by a
friend, that you check the RFC for each protocol. What is an RFC?
A. An RFC is a program that has a searchable index to troubleshoot network problems.
B. An RFC is a document that discusses issues surrounding the Internet, networking
technologies, and/or networking protocols.
C. An RFC is a hidden resource, which can be called up via the Windows Help file to
identify details about networking protocols.
D. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on the Internet.
E. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on an Intranet.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In Windows 2000, there are four methods of implementing IPSec. They are:
1. Require Security
2 - Request Security
3 - Respond Only
4 - No IPSec Policy
Your network hosts many servers, and different security policies are in place in
different locations in the network. The Clients and Servers in your network are
configured as follows:
-You have servers numbered 1-9, which have a policy stating they require no
network traffic security.
-You have servers numbered 10-19, which have a policy stating they are not
required to be secure, but will encrypt network traffic if the client is able to receive
it.
-You have servers numbered 20-29, which have a policy stating they are required to
be secure and all network traffic they deliver must be secured.
-You have clients numbered 60-79 that are required to access secure servers 20-29.
-You have clients numbered 80-99 that are not required to access secure servers
20-29, but are required to access servers 1-9 and 10-19.
Based on the Client and Server configuration provided above, which of the
following computers will implement IPSec method 2?
A. Computers numbered 1-9
B. Computers numbered 10-19
C. Computers numbered 20-29
D. Computers numbered 60-79
E. Computers numbered 80-99
Answer: B

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NO.4 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user
of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible
consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
Answer: AC

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NO.5 In order to add to your layered defense, you wish to implement some security
configurations on your router. If you wish to have the router work on blocking TCP
SYN attacks, what do you add to the end of an ACL statement?
A. The IP addresses for allowed networks
B. The port range of allowed applications
C. The word Established
D. The word Log
E. The string: no service udp-small-servers
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the last few days, users have reported to you that they have each received two
emails from an unknown source with file attachments. Fortunately the users have
listened to your training and no one has run the attached program. You study the
attachment on an isolated computer and find that it is a program that is designed to
execute a payload when the system clock registers 10:10 PM on February 29. Which
of the following best identifies the type of program is the attachment?
A. Mail Bomb
B. Logic Bomb
C. Polymorphic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
E. Polymorphic Trojan
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the function of the HFNetChk tool from Microsoft?
A. To check for the current Hotfixes that are available from Microsoft
B. It is an upgrade to the Windows Update tool for checking on all updates
C. It is the tool that must be run prior to installing IIS 5.0
D. It is the tool that checks the network configuration of all web servers
E. To record what Hotfixes and service packs are running on the Windows machine
Answer: E

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NO.8 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E

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NO.9 When you took over the security responsibilities at your office, you noticed there
were no warning banners on any of the equipment. You have decided to create a
warning login banner on your Cisco router. Which of the following shows the
correct syntax for the banner creation?
A. banner login C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
B. login banner C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
C. banner login Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
D. login banner Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
E. banner logging C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this
device. C
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is implemented in an IPv6 environment, which helps to
increase security?
A. EFS
B. IPsec
C. Caching
D. S/MIME
E. Destination and Source Address Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following fields are found in a user account's line in the /etc/passwd
file?
A. The User Identifier assigned to the user account
B. The home directory used by the user account
C. The number of days since the user account password was changed
D. The full name for the user account
E. The number of days until the user account's password must change
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 You are creating the contingency plan, and are trying to take into consideration as
many of the disasters as you can think of. Which of the following are examples of
technological disasters?
A. Hurricane
B. Terrorism
C. Tornado
D. Virus
E. Trojan Horse
Answer: BDE

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NO.13 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that
it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network
ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
Answer: E

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NO.14 If you are looking for plain-text ASCII characters in the payload of a packet you
capture using Network Monitor, which Pane will provide you this information?
A. Summary Pane
B. Packet Pane
C. Collection Pane
D. Hex Pane
E. Detail Pane
Answer: D

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NO.15 The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and
E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively
and interface S0 is connected to the Internet.
The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the
Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network
192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal
networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required
to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: BDF

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NO.16 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you
do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the
term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and
accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
between a dialup client and a dialup server.
Answer: D

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NO.17 In order to properly manage the network traffic in your organization, you need a
complete understanding of protocols and networking models. In regards to the
7-layer OSI model, what is the function of the Transport Layer?
A. The Transport layer allows two applications on different computers to establish, use,
and end a session. This layer establishes dialog control between the two computers in a
session, regulating which side transmits, plus when and how long it transmits.
B. The Transport layer manages logical addresses. It also determines the route from the
source to the destination computer and manages traffic problems, such as routing, and
controlling the congestion of data packets.
C. The Transport layer packages raw bits from the Physical (Layer 1) layer into frames
(structured packets for data). Physical addressing (as opposed to network or logical
addressing) defines how devices are addressed at the data link layer. This layer is
responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another, without errors. After
sending a frame, it waits for an acknowledgment from the receiving computer.
D. The Transport layer transmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the
transmission of a stream of bits over a physical medium. For example, this layer defines
how the cable is attached to the network adapter and what transmission technique is used
to send data over the cable.
E. The Transport layer handles error recognition and recovery. It also repackages long
messages, when necessary, into small packets for transmission and, at the receiving end,
rebuilds packets into the original message. The corresponding Transport layer at the
receiving end also sends receipt acknowledgments.
Answer: E

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NO.18 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine.
When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few
configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function
of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently
logged in users.
Answer: D

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NO.19 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on
a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.20 You work for a mid sized ISP on the West Coast of the United Kingdom. Recently
you have noticed that there are an increasing number of attacks on the Internet
routers used in the company. The routers are physically secured well, so you can be
somewhat confident the attacks are all remote. Which of the following are legitimate
threats the routers are facing, under this situation?
A. Damaged Cables
B. False Data Injection
C. Social Engineering
D. Unauthorized Remote Access
E. Denial of Service
Answer: BDE

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NO.21 You are configuring a wildcard mask for the subnet 10.12.24.0 / 255.255.248.0.
Which of the following is the wildcard mask to use for this subnet?
A. 0.255.255.255
B. 10.12.24.255
C. 0.0.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 0.0.7.255
Answer: E

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NO.22 You are creating the contingency plan for the network in hospital where you just
started working. The network has about 300 PCs, about 50 Servers, and is
interconnected into some of the critical patient systems for monitoring purposes.
What is the appropriate level of backup power for this type of network?
A. Building Generator
B. Personal UPS
C. Alternative Fuel-Cell Technology
D. Server Rack UPS
E. Electrical Company
Answer: A

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NO.23 You are reviewing the Xinetd configuration file for the ftp service. If the following
line found in this file, what is the line's function?
redirect = 192.168.10.1 3456
A. That only 192.168.10.1 can make ftp requests
B. That only hosts in the 192.168.10.0/24 network can make ftp requests
C. That only 3456 connections are allowed to the ftp service on 192.168.10.1
D. That the overall Xinetd configuration has redirect lines in it
E. That the ftp service is redirected to IP 192.168.10.1 on port 3456
Answer: E

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NO.24 One way to find out more about a company's infrastructure layout is to send email
to a non-existent user of the target organization. When this email bounces back as
undeliverable, you can read the message source. Which of the following pieces of
information can be derived from the returned message source?
A. Target company's email server's hostname.
B. Target company's email server's public IP address.
C. Target company's internal IP addressing scheme.
D. Target company's email server's application name and version, if provided.
E. Target company's employees' email addresses.
Answer: ABD

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NO.25 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000
network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates
to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security
Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different
Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power
Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security
areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic
between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a
DC.
Answer: A

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NO.26 In your network, you manage a mixed environment of Windows, Linux, and UNIX
computers. The clients run Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT 4.0
Workstation, while the Servers are UNIX and Linux based with custom
applications. During routine administration you successfully ping several nodes in
the network. During this you are running a packet capture for further analysis.
When examining one of the frames you notice that the Ethernet address for the
source is 1ED0.097E.E5E9 and that for the destination is 1ED0.096F.5B13. From
this information you gather that:
A. They are in different networks
B. The destination address is in the 1ED0 subnet
C. The network cards are by the same manufacturer
D. The destination address is in the 1ED0.09AA subnet
E. The source and destination share the same MAC subnet
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have recently hired an assistant to help you with managing the security of your
network. You are currently running an all Windows environment, and are
describing NTFS permission issues. You are using some demonstration files to help
with your discussion. You have two NTFS partitions, C:\ and D:\ There is a test file,
C:\DIR1\test.txt that is currently set so that only Administrators have Full Control.
If you move this file to the C:\DIR2 folder, what will the permissions be for this file?
A. The file will have the same permissions as D:\DIR2
B. The file permissions will remain the same
C. The file permissions will be lost
D. The file permissions will convert to Everyone - Full Control
E. The permissions will be set to whatever the CREATOR OWNER permissions are for
the D:\ partition
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are
the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify
what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE

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NO.29 You wish to add a new group to your Linux system. The group is called
SCNP_Admins, and is to be given a Group Identifier of 1024. What is the correct
command to add this new group?
A. addgroup SCNP_Admins -id 1024
B. groupadd -g 1024 SCNP_Admins
C. addgroup SCNP_Admins id/1024
D. groupadd id/1024 g/SCNP_Admins
E. groupadd g/1024 SCNP_Admins
Answer: B

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NO.30 When a new user account is created in Linux, what values are assigned?
A. Shell_GID
B. SetGID
C. SetUID
D. UID
E. GID
Answer: DE

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Exam Code: PMI-002
Exam Name: PMI (Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification)
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Total Q&A: 748 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the
following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. w¡ãrl< packag
C. sow
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance.
However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an
overall delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?
A. Communication plan variance
B. Resource management plan
C. Critical path status
D. Risk analysis
Answer: C

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NO.6 Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A. The project manager
B. The project sponsor
C. The Team lead
D. The nianagement
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps
to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Answer: A

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NO.8 Project Quality Management includes:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention over inspection
C. Continuous improvement
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A

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NO.10 Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of ____________.
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A

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NO.12 Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject
one vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which
selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B

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NO.14 Create Procurement document is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and
is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule.
What is the BAC?
A. $-00,000
B. $200,00
C. $50,000
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two
project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving
the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the
meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What
type of organizational structure you are working in?
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Strong Matrix
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM
failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D.