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Exam Code: 000-959J
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Sales V3 (000-959日本語版))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 販売スペシャリ ストは、 AIX と EMC DMX システム上で動作 する重要な SAP データベー
ス? ゕプ リケーシ ョン のワークロ ードのた め に DSS800 を提供する機会に遭遇 している 顧 客
を閉じます。顧客はパフォーマンスに関係していて、DS8800 提案 の前にパフォーマンス分
析を求めます。
どの IBM ツールは構成を計画するために使用する必要がありますか。
A. RMF マジック
B. SAP マジック
C. デゖスクマジック
D. キャパシテゖ· マジック
Answer: C

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NO.2 販売スペシャリ ストは顧客と FO SAN を協議しています。 顧客はそれが企業のニーズに
最適なソリューションではないことを述べています。 顧客が心の中で別のソリューションを
持っていますが、それの正確な名前を忘れましたから、それが LAN と関係があると言う だ
けです。
顧客が明 確に述べようとしている用語はどれですか。
A. SAS
B. WAN
C. SATA
D. SCSI
Answer: D

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NO.3 顧客はクラウド? ストレージを活用することに非常に興味があります。 顧客はプラ゗ベ
ート· クラウド· ストレ ージを配備する前に、これらの 3 つの重要な ステップをどの順序で実
行しなければなりませんか。
1. バックゕップ、 リカバリ、 メータリング、 および課金のような主要業務プロセスを含んで
いるストレージ管理を自動化します
2. 仮想化、 重複除外、 圧縮、 階層化を活用することによって効率的なストレージ環境を確立
します
3. セルフサービスと従量課金機能を追加することによってストレージ環境を最適化します
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 2
C. 3, 2, 1
D. 2, 1, 3
Answer: D

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NO.4 新しいオペレー ション· デゖレクターとのミーテゖングでは、 ストレージ管理者が現在
010 である限り、顧客 がいたことが述べられています。オペレーションズ· デゖレクターは、
彼らのチームが 010 に 勧告を行うと述べています。
販売スペシャリストは次に何をしなければなりませんか。
A. 010 との会議をスケ ジュールする
B. ストレージ管理者 に会う
C. オペレーション· デ ゖレクターに提案を準備する
D. 010 とオペレーショ ン· デゖレクターにソリューションを提出する
Answer: B

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NO.5 顧客はストレージの共通プールを持つ新しいストレージ· ゗ ン フ ラ ス ト ラ ク チ ャ を 設
計したいと考えています。POWER と x86 サ ーバーの混合、高性能サーバーはフゔ゗バーチ
ャネル? ゕダプターを使用します。 高可用性と長距離のデゖザスタ? リカバリの両方が必要で
す。
情報のどの部分がネットワークに SAN を接続するために最も重要ですか。
A. どのプロトコルがサポートされなければならないか
B. 異なるサーバー間 のホップの数
C. フゔ゗バー· チャネ ルとネットワーク接続されたデバ゗スの数
D. フゔ゗バチャネル とネットワーク接続されたデバ゗スのスピード
Answer: A

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NO.6 どの技術と配信 評価はソリューション設計の後、顧客への提案の前に行われますか。
A. Pre-sale
B. Post-sale
C. Pre-install
D. Post-install
Answer: A

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NO.7 顧客は 100 TB の ストレージ? ソリューションで開始しようとしています。今後の 3 年
間で、彼らはストレージ容量とパフォーマンスの要件を倍増する予定です。
どの IBM ストレージ· ソリューションは、この顧客のために比例してパフォーマン スと容量
の両方をスケーリングするのでしょうか。
A. N6420
B. DS8800
C. XIVGen3
D. D55100 を持つ SAN ボリューム· コントローラー
Answer: C

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NO.8 リゕルタ゗ムの圧縮ゕプラ゗ゕンス 技 術はどの製品で動作 す るようになっていま す か。
A. 3PAR
B. Isilon
C. NetApp
D. Compellent
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 In a Job Sequence, what is the purpose for the use of Checkpoints?
A. Monitor performance and failure for each stage
B. Automatically restart a job
C. Record the log information for each trigger
D. Restart a job from the latest Checkpoint in case of job failures
Answer: D

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NO.2 Using a Job Sequence, which of the following tasks CANNOT be performed?
A. Define specific user variables and make them available within a Job Sequence
B. Drop a database table using a script, then start two different parallel jobs in sequence when a file
appears in a specific directory
C. Run two different parallel jobs in sequence and use job parameters to pass different
$APT_CONFIG _FILE values for each of them
D. Create multiple Exception Handlers stages to handle different types of failures
Answer: D

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NO.3 For the Information Server Repository, which Relational Database Management System (RDMS)
CANNOT be used?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Informix
C. DB2 UDB
D. Oracle
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is a valid Write Table action in the Connector Stages?
A. Append
B. Replace
C. Truncate
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement about Metadata Workbench is incorrect?
A. It can extend data lineage to display data integration flows that are outside of Information Server
B. It relies on the repository functions in DataStage Designer for impact analysis
C. It displays data lineage reports
D. It allows Metadata Workbench administrators to associate data stewards with data objects
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which type of Join would you select for the Join Stage to output unmatched records from both
input data sources?
A. Inner join
B. Left outer join
C. Right outer join
D. Full outer join
Answer: D

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Exam Code: SU0-224
Exam Name: Huawei (Huawei Certified Datacom Professional - Fast Certification)
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Total Q&A: 706 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all
related routing information.
Answer: D

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NO.2 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255.
255. 240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

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NO.5 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to
the same destination IP address in different VPNs.
How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message.
Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following configurations can be performed to implement fast failure detection on a
network?
A. Reduce the holdtime of Join/Prune messages.
B. Reduce the interval for an interface to send Hello messages.
C. Set up a PIM BFD session between network segment neighbors.
D. Reduce the interval for sending Join/Prune messages.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

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NO.11 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which are the functions of the route target on an MPLS VPN network?
A. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
B. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
C. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
D. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 Which statement about the trunk interface is true?
A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.
B. Multiple VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different from
the PVID.
C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.
D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface
broadcast the packet in the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are factors that affect QoS?
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

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NO.20 Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?
A. Thumbnail
B. Extended Log
C. Content Check
D. Snapshot on Error
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the Analysis tool, what allows you to modify the scale of the x-axis?
A. think time
B. granularity
C. event type
D. transaction hierarchical path
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

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NO.4 After the scenario execution, which LoadRunner component is responsible for collecting and
organizing the performance data?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. load generator
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

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NO.6 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
Answer: B

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NO.7 During analysis of a scenario, you realize that the throughput becomes flat as Vusers continue to
increase. What is the likely cause?
A. a bandwidth problem
B. a database server problem
C. a web server connection problem
D. an application server connection problem
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which Analysis graph shows the number of transactions against transaction response times?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to
drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current
number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which scenario execution run allows you to verify the system performs as expected under load?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

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NO.12 When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the lr_start_transaction function be
placed?
A. at the end of the action section
B. at the beginning of the action section
C. immediately after the rendezvous function
D. immediately before the rendezvous function
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination
machines?
A. MS IIS
B. Windows Resource
C. Network Delay Time
D. Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Answer: C

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NO.15 What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C. the time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D. the time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test
scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C

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NO.17 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the
Vusers.
Start auto log message stack - Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

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NO.18 When scheduling by scenario, to which group(s) does the defined schedule apply?
A. all groups in the scenario
B. only the first group in the scenario
C. only the selected group in the scenario
D. only the selected group in the scenario scheduler
Answer:A

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NO.19 You configure a scenario to start with a delay of <05:00:00> (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from
work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A. You failed to save the scenario.
B. You failed to save the schedule.
C. You failed to connect to the load generators.
D. You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other
measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S12
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which server recovery functions are included with Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)? (Select three.)
A. automatic memory repair
B. recovery from a fan failure
C. automatic hard drive repair
D. recovery from a processor failure
E. recovery from a power supply failure
F. automatic restarting after an operating system failure
Answer: ADF

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NO.2 Which tasks can be performed on a group of iLO processors by an administrator using the HP
Lights-Out Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. Configure network settings.
B. Team the iLO ports for high availability.
C. Activate the ProLiant Essentials iLO Advanced Pack license keys.
D. Integrate iLO ports in one HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) group.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which statement is correct regarding Transmit Load Balancing (TLB)?
A. TLB teaming has a maximum of four NICs in a team.
B. TLB requires an 802.3ad-capable switch to support TLB teaming.
C. NICs in TLB do not have Network Fault Tolerance (NFT) capability.
D. TLB can receive at 1000Mb/s (theoretical throughput) using four teamed Gigabit Ethernet NICs.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which features are added to Lights-Out 100i Advanced Pack compared to Lights-Out 100? (Select
three.)
A. control system power
B. embedded KVM over IP
C. boot to remote diskette drive
D. available as option expansion card
E. full remote graphical console capabilities
F. embedded Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: BEF

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NO.5 Which default port number is used with the following link to open HP Systems Insight Manager?
https://<Server_IP_address>:
A. 23
B. 2301
C. 2381
D. 50000
Answer: D

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NO.6 You need to estimate the run time for a UPS solution for some HP ProLiant servers. Which tool
accomplishes this task?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Power Distribution Utility
C. Rack and Power Manager
D. UPS Enterprise Configurator
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which management protocols can HP SIM use to automatically discover and identify HP servers,
desktops, clusters, workstations, and portables? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: ABE

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NO.8 What is a feature of SATA?
A. PIN efficiency is lower than ATA hard drives.
B. SATA host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
C. SATA drives are daisy-chained during configuration.
D. It uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as Serial Attached SCSI.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which advanced memory protection technology avoids unplanned downtime due to a complete
memory chip failure?
A. Online Spare
B. Standard ECC
C. Advanced ECC
D. Mirrored Memory
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer wants to connect an MSA30 DB storage solution to a ProLiant DL380 G5 server. Which
Smart Array controller is required to connect both MSA connectors?
A. Smart Array 6i
B. Smart Array 641
C. Smart Array 642
D. Smart Array 6402
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which resource gathers information for sizing, recommends tools, and helps to deploy a business
solution?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. Product Bulletin
C. Enterprise Configurator
D. Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are asked to investigate a failing hard drive on a ProLiant DL380 G5. When you arrive at the rack,
you notice all the hard drive LEDs are flashing and the server UID light is flashing blue. What is
happening?
A. The array is rebuilding a redundant array using an RDP scripted task. The UID is blinking because
RDP is in control.
B. A disk has failed in a nonredundant array and all logical drives are lost. You must erase all logical drives
and rebuild the server.
C. Someone is accessing the unit using the iLO 2 remote console and is probably using the Array
Configuration Utility to check on the RAID configuration.
D. Someone has requested remote assistance from the HP SIM console and is using the storage agents
to run an identification SNMP task on all the disks in the array.
Answer: C

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NO.13 From which HP resource can you access a set of tools, e-Services and solution sizers to help plan and
implement a suitable server solution for a customer?
A. HP Support Center
B. ActiveAnswers website
C. Solutions Programs Portal website
D. Channel Services Network website
E. Support and Troubleshooting website
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are required to provide a UPS solution for a ProLiant DL380 G5 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000.
All units are supplied with fully redundant power supplies (PSUs). The customer's goal is to provide
proper shutdown in the event of an extended power outage. Which guidelines are important as part of
your recommended minimum solution? (Select two.)
A. The UPS should have a minimum of 2 load segments.
B. The UPS should have a minimum of 3 load segments.
C. The UPS should have a minimum of 6 load segments.
D. Provide one UPS of VA rating based on the sizing requirements of the UPS Sizing Tool.
E. Provide one UPS of VA rating equal to at least 1.40 x the total maximum combined power requirements
(watts) of all units.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which script is sent securely by CPQLOCFG to iLO over the network?
A. RIBCL
B. RIBdos.vbs
C. HPONCFG
D. CPQLODOS
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are the preferred methods for multiserver deployment? (Select two.)
A. SmartStart
B. iLO Scripting
C. Rapid Deployment Pack
D. Insight Control Linux Edition
Answer: CD

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NO.17 A customer requires a Linux file server to be accessed by Windows and UNIX workstations. Which
services should be installed to support this requirement? (Select two.)
A. MD
B. NFS
C. NSS
D. SMB
E. CUPS
F. AutoFS
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Which ports must be open when using the HP SIM defaults through a firewall? (Select three.)
A. 22 (SSH)
B. 23 (Telnet)
C. 8160 (Patrol)
D. 137 (NETBIOS)
E. 161 (SNMP Agent)
F. 5989 (HTTPS WMI Mapper)
Answer: AEF

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NO.19 Which type of memory protection calculates a 72-bit syndrome for every 64 bits of data?
A. Automatic Parity Checking (APC)
B. Error Checking and Correcting (ECC)
C. Error Detecting and Correction (EDC)
D. Battery Backed Write Cache (BBWC)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which products are ProLiant Essentials Value Pack options for configuration management? (Select
three.)
A. Automation Pack
B. Rapid Deployment Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Integrated Lights-Out Advanced Pack
E. Remote Direct Memory Access Pack
Answer: BCD

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Exam Code: HP0-A01
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 179 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which commands are recommended to clear the c ontents an ac tive file c alled log-file? (S elect two.)
A.>log-file
B.trim log-file
C.freset log-file
D.cat /dev/null > log-file
Answer:A D

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NO.2 What does the linkloop command test?
A.router activity
B.Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C.MAC address connectivity between network cards
D.loopback address connectivity between network cards
Answer:C

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NO.3 What are the new features offered in NFS version 4? (Select three.)
A.integrated security
B.asynchronous write support
C.integrated file locking support
D.simplified firewall configuration
E.support for the UDP network transport
Answer:A C D

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NO.4 Where are system startup/shutdown scripts located?
A./etc/rc2.d
B./sbin/init.d
C./sbin/config.d
D./etc/rc.config.d
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which feature of HP CIFS allows a Unix uid or gid to be mapped to a Windows account or group?
A.nmbd
B.smbd
C.winbind
D.smbclient
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?
A.whois
B.uname
C.nsquery
D.hostname
E.gethostbyname
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which files c ontrol the HP S ys tem Manag ement Homepag e (S MH) c onfiguration? (S elect two.)
A./opt/smh/smh.conf
B./opt/smh/conf/envvars
C ./opt/hpsmh/hpsmh.conf
D./opt/hpsmh/lbin/envvars
E./opt/smh/conf/timeout.conf
F./opt/hpsmh/conf/timeout.conf
Answer:D F

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NO.8 Which pair of statements is true when launching a tool using HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM Server
B.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
C.- authorizations are configured in Select Access - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
D.- authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions - users are authenticated using
PAM on the HP SIM Server
Answer:A

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NO.9 What are benefits of the HP-UX 11i v3 parallel probing of HBAs, targets, and LUNs? (Select two.)
A.improved boot time
B.improved availability
C.improved virtualization
D.improved I/O scan time
E.improved I/O performance
Answer:A D

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NO.10 C lick the E xhibit button. Why do you s ee an "x" for the us ers in the s ec ond field of the /etc/ pas s wd file?
A.password is expired
B.blank password is used.
C.user is currently deactivated.
D.shadow password is enabled.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What are the major features of IPFilter on HP -UX 11i v3? (Select three.)
A.creates extensive logs
B.supports X.25 Interfaces
C.installed and enabled by default
D.provides a new GUI configuration tool
E.supports Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer:A B E

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NO.12 How do you change a volume group name without reloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which vPar feature is available on HP -UX 11i v3?
A.shared I/O
B.CPU granularity
C.dynamic migration of I/O
D.dynamic migration of memory
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which areas can be locations of system bottlenecks? (Select three.)
A.disk
B.CPU
C.VPMON
D.memory
E.hard partition size
F.graphical interface
G.size of filesystems
Answer:A B D

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NO.15 Which file s ys tems are included with the HP -UX Foundation Operating Environment (OE)? (Select two.)
A.ext3
B.HFS
C.VxVM
D.memfs
E.Base JFS
F.Online JFS
Answer:B E

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NO.16 Which file c ontains the information s ent in res pons e to a bootp reques t?
A./etc/services
B./etc/bootptab
C./etc/inetd.conf
D./etc/bootp.conf
Answer:B

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NO.17 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A.NUMA
B.ccNUMA
C.concurrent dumps
D.single CPU per socket
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?
A.arp
B.lanscan
C.ifconfig
D.traceroute
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which file c ontains the modified c onfiguration values that will be us ed the next time the cims erver s tarts ?
A.cimserver.conf
B.cimserver_start.conf
C.cimserver_planned.conf
D.cimserver_nextboot.conf
Answer:C

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NO.20 How do you remove a virtual partition?
A.from the vPar monitor: MON>VPARREMOVE -p
B.from the MP: CM>VPARDELETE and select the name of the vPar from the list
C.execute vparstatus, then verify the vPar is down using vparremove -p
D.bring down all the vPar kernels made from the same nPar and reboot the kernel into the nPar
Answer:C

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NO.21 Click the Task button. Using drag and drop, match each backup/archive tool with its operation.
Answer:
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6

NO.22 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.the physical links
C.a physical volume device file
D.the lvm disk resident structures
Answer:D

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NO.23 What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?
A.increasing throughput on the network interface
B.binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C.binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D.binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
Answer:C

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NO.24 How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?
A.HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B.Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C.Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D.Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX to 4.
Answer:D

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NO.25 C lick the T as k button. Us ing drag and drop, match each network c onfiguration file with its c ommon
definition.
Answer:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

NO.26 If ios c an s hows no device files for a claimed hardware path, which c ommand c an be us ed to recreate them?
A.lssf
B.reboot
C.insf -e
D./sbin/ioinitrc
Answer:C

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NO.27 The HP-UX System Management Homepage is started using which URL?
A.http://hostname
B.http://hostname:80
C.http://hostname:2301
D.http://hostname/hpsmh
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)
A.netstat
B.ifconfig
C.linkloop
D.lanscan
E.lanadmin
Answer:C D E

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NO.29 What is the length of an IPv4 address?
A.32 bits
B.48 bits
C.64 bits
D.128 bits
Answer:A

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NO.30 Which NF S s erver file c ontains a lis t of clients that currently have the s erver's NF S file s ys tems mounted?
A./etc/fstab
B./etc/rmtab
C./etc/nfstab
D./etc/mnttab
E./etc/exports
Answer:B

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Exam Code: HP0-083
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS Network Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 How many hosts can be configured using the IP network and subnet mask shown below?

NO.2 You have a system with three network adapters. How would you benefit from having two adapters on
the same subnet?
A. network connectivity failover
B. load balancing of MOP traffic
C. route two networks through OpenVMS system
D. allows the system to use one adapter for send and the other for receive
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which DECnet configuration files need to be kept synchronized in an OpenVMS cluster? Select TWO.
A. NETOBJECT.DAT
B. NET$MANAGE.DAT
C. NET$SECURITY.DAT
D. NETNODE_LOCAL.DAT
E. NETPROXY.DAT/NET$PROXY.DAT
Answer: AE

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NO.4 Which technique can you apply to connect two network segments with nodes having the same
addresses?
A. Active Directory
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
Answer: D

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NO.6 What do you do to preserve site-specific parameter settings and commands for a specific TCPIP
service?
A. Edit SYS$SYSTARTUP:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
B. Edit SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
C. Create files of the form SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
D. Create files of the form SYS$STARTUP:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which protocol does GateD use to advertise routes?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. ESNMP
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a function of TCPIP$INETACP?
A. monitoring all pseudo devices
B. ensuring that network servers are running
C. maintaining the routing table
D. listening for and dispatching incoming connections
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a similarity between TCPIP proxy and DECnet proxy?
A. both use the same proxy database
B. both allow remote users anonymous access
C. both use AUTHORIZE to manage their database
D. both allow remote users to transparently access files
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer requires that users can establish interactive sessions across the network, but they will NOT
allow passwords to be sent in the clear. What can you use to satisfy this dual requirement?
A. RSH
B. SSH
C. RLOGIN
D. SET HOST
Answer: B

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NO.11 A netstat -r command on node 16.112.138.25 displays the following information:
Routing tables
Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Interface
Route Tree for Protocol Family 26:
Route Tree for Protocol Family 2:
default 16.112.128.1 UGS 2 94624 WE0
16.112.128 belize U 1 48405 WE0
belize belize UHL 0 0 WE0
LOCALHOST LOCALHOST UHL 49 13939757 LO0
16.10.121.2 16.112.128.3 UGHS 3 57536 WE0
Which route is used to ping node 16.3.12.47?
A. LOCALHOST
B. default
C. 16.112.128
D. 16.10.121.2
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which types of routing can you set up on an OpenVMS system? Select TWO.
A. fixed
B. static
C. flexible
D. adaptive
E. dynamic
Answer: BE

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NO.13 What is the function of the ARP protocol?
A. to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. to resolve service names to port assignments
C. to ensure quality of service (QoS) for a connection
D. to determine the shortest path between two IP nodes
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a function of ICMP?
A. sharing web pages between nodes
B. translating names to addresses
C. transporting and routing information
D. sharing IP status and error information
Answer: D

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NO.15 A user needs to run a TCP/IP application using an unprivileged account. Which port numbers are
available for this?
A. any free port above 511
B. any free port above 1023
C. any free port above 2047
D. any free port above 4095
Answer: B

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NO.16 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

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NO.17 What happens if the "Retransmit Threshold" of the OSI transport is exceeded?
A. server process exits
B. connection is dropped
C. DECnet hangs
D. system shuts down
Answer: B

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NO.18 What advantage do TCP broadcast packets have over UDP broadcast packets?
A. They can be routed.
B. They are better compressed.
C. They have a shorter round trip time.
D. They implement a one to many message.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You need to present four names to an IP network. What is the minimal hardware configuration
required?
A. one server with one NIC
B. one server with four NICs
C. two servers with two NICs each
D. four servers with one NIC each
Answer: A

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NO.20 66.96.0 255.255.255.192
A. 62
B. 64
C. 191
D. 192
E. 254
Answer: A

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10. Which network device forwards packets between IP subnets?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. switch
D. router
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-790
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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NO.2 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.3 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.4 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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NO.5 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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