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Exam Code: HP2-B65
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What should a business do before deciding to print in-house?
A. determine if they can get a bulk discount on glossy paper
B. use the HP Print Cost Calculator to determine if it is cost effective to print a job in-house
C. hire a local print shop employee on a contract basis to help develop in-house material
D. find a contractor to create the design
Answer: B

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NO.2 When would a company typically use outsourced printing.?
A. when they have several small print jobs
B. when medium or high volumes of static documents are required
C. when confidential document printing is required
D. when short turnaround time is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the advantage of a multifunction printer? A. It can be networked to more end users than a
networked single function printer.
B. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer.
C. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing and copying.
D. Once it has reached its monthly print volume it automatically turns off so there are no excess
copy charges to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which imaging and printing trend is an industry trend?
A. seeking information on the Internet
B. convergence of multiple functions into one device
C. using templates to create a business brand
D. paperless offices
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the HP Marketing Resource Center?
A. a new HP service for HP partners who provide printed marketing material on demand
B. anew HP print center for end users who provide customer-designed marketing material
C. anewly created team of marketing experts that provide in-house training for HP partners
D. anHP resource for document templates, free training classes, and success stories
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z12
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Networking Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The exhibit shows the Power and seven-segment LEDs of an HP A Series switch. What is the switch's
status?
Exhibit:
A. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster.
B. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster, but its attempt to join the cluster has failed.
C. The switch has failed the power on self test (POST) with ID 8.
D. Port number 8 has failed the switch's power on self test (POST).
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT
support?
A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have been sent to a customer site to check an HP E8212 zlswitch. When you arrive, you notice
that the Fault and Fan Status LEDs are flashing. What is the most likely cause of this LED behavior?
A. The cooling fan is no longer functional
B. The switch is brand new and needs to have the most current firmware installed.
C. The external power supply has failed, causing the fan to malfunction.
D. The switch has failed its self-test
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are installing an SFP transceiver in an HP A Series switch's SFP port. Which steps should you
perform? (Select two.)
A. Connect the fiber optic cable to the SFP transceiver before installing the transceiver.
B. Slide the transceiver into the SFP port until the spring clips catch.
C. Rotate the clasp, if present on the front of the transceiver, until it catches the knob.
D. Press and hold the spring clips on the SFP port
E. Press and hold the release button below the SFP port.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting an HP A Series switch. You attempt to log in to both the CLI and the Web
browser interface in several different ways, but you are always prompted for credentials. The customer
tells you that the person who created the passwords is no longer employed by the company. What can
you do to access the switch?
A. Use the failsafe credentials, admin for username and password for password.
B. Press the Reset and Clear buttons on the switch's front panel, holding them for at least 5 seconds, to
clear the password
C. Access the Boot ROM menu and bypass the configuration, starting the switch at factory default
settings.
D. Access the switch over a direct console connection, which always permits access without a password.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are troubleshooting a connection on an HP A Series switch that has one LED per-port. You want to
know if the port is operating in the wrong duplex mode. How do you use the LED to obtain relevant
information?
A. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is blinkinggreenand thencheck the port LED.
B. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is yellow and thencheck the port LED.
C. Check if the port LED is blinking,which indicates its duplex status (while its color indicates speed).
D. Check the color of the port LED, which indicates its duplex status (while its blinking indicates speed).
Answer: B

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NO.7 You log in to an HP A Series switch over a console session in order to establish IP connectivity
between the switch and the rest of the network. What is the minimum user privilege level needed to
complete this task?
A. Operator
B. Monitor
C. System
D. Manage
Answer: C

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NO.8 You check the startup-config on an HP A Series switch and find that the switch uses myconfig.cfg as
the main startup-config and has no backup config. What happens if you use the undo startup
savedconfiguration command?
A. The myconfig.cfg file is deleted, and the switch returns to factory default settings at the next reboot.
B. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot.
C. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and is booted at the next reboot unless you
set another main startup-config
D. The myconfig.cfg file is retained in the switch's memory, but the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot
Answer: D

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NO.9 DRAG DROP
Match the HP A Series switch user interface with the type of access that it controls.
Answer:

NO.10 Which E Series switches require two power supplies to be completely operational? (Select two.)
A. HP E4200vl switch
B. HP E5406zl switch
C. HP E5412zl switch
D. HP E2900 al switch
E. HP E8212zl switch
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 How can you check the status of the ports that are providing Power over Ethernet (PoE) on an HP
E2610-PWR switch?
A. Use the Mode button to selectPoE and then view the port Link and Mode LEDs
B. Use the Port Locator button to selectPoE and then view the port Status and Link LEDs.
C. View the portPoE LED.
D. Use the switch'sPoE LED and the PoE LED for each port.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which HP E Switch Series is specifically designed to be deployed in a data center?
A. E4200vl
B. E6200yl
C. E6600
D. E8200zl
Answer: C

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NO.13 A faulty configuration on an HP A Series switch locked a customer out of the management interface.
You bypass the configuration and gain access to the switch's CLI.Your manager asks
you to send her the configuration to examine.
What must you do?
A. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and a BackUp the Startup-Config to a TFTP Server server
and issue the backup command
B. Use the copy command to copy the configuration to your management station.
C. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and your management station and use the save
command to save the configuration.
D. Use the saved-configuration command to select the startup-config and save it out to your management
station.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are installing an HP A Series switch that requires a backup power supply as well as extra power for
Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices. Which device should you connect to this switch?
A. RPS 1200 A
B. RPS 1000 A3
C. RPS 800 A
D. RPS500 A3
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are installing a redundant power supply in an HP E8212 zl switch. Which procedures are
recommended when installing the new power supply?(Select two.)
A. Remove the copper RFI shielding.
B. Attach the new power supply to a different AC power source than the existing power supply to provide
true redundancy.
C. Tighten the retaining screws on the new power supply until they are snug but not over-tight.
D. Connect the redundant power supply to the AC power source before installing it in the switch.
E. Remove the grounding tap from the console port before installing the power supply.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?
A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?
A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches
Answer: B

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NO.18 Several HP A Series switches are distinguished by a dual-personality (or combo) port. What is an
accurate description of this port?
A. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or fiber optic cable
B. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or a small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver
C. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Both can be used simultaneously.
D. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Only one can be used at a time.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are servicing an HP A Series switch, which is currently using a file call myconfig.cfg for the
startup-config. You want to preserve your new configuration changes in the switch's startup config.
Which command should you use?
A. write memory
B. save
C. save startup.cfg
D. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which area of the network is considered the backbone?
A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D08
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click on the area that should be completed first when preparing the server profile to boot from SAN.
Answer:

NO.2 A customer environment has two HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure, each fully loaded with ProLiant
BL495c server blades, two Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules, and two Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
Modules. How many Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM) licenses need to be applied in order to
use VCEM functionality across the whole environment?
A.1 license
B.2 licenses
C.4 licenses
D.32 licenses
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which clusters are treated like virtual machine hosts when using Insight Dynamics capacity planning?
A.HP-UX Service guard
B. Vmware DRS
C. Service guard for Linux
D. Microsoft Cluster Server
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which CLI command should be used first to prepare the CMS for a full system backup?
A. mxsytc-scvutil manual
B. mxsytc-scvutil auto
C. mxsync-scvutil start
D. mxsync-scvutil stop backup
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which software is available to provided advanced integration and management of 3rd party virtual
machine environments?(Select two.)
A.HP Insight Control
B.HP Insight Control for Linux
C.HP Insight Control for PROLiant
D.HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter.
E.HP Insight Control for Microsoft System Center
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 What are best practice recommendations when finding sever blades with HP Insight Control server
deployment software and deploying operating systems to target server blades?
A. The logical server functionality works best with 16 or fewer characters.
B. When a server is discovered, always use the default name.
C. You may use dashes, capital letters or underscore characters in the names.
D. Avoid the use of dashes or underscores in the names.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Fibre Channel Boot Preferences setting should be used to enable the SAN boot option in a
Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager Server profile?
A. FC-boot
B. Primary
C. Use BIOS/EFI
D.BFS
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are feature of Insight Remote Support Standard (Insight RSS)?(Select two.)
A. base option of extended business hours [13*5] monitoring
B.HP Proprietary communications security protocols
C. automatic service dispatch based on customer preferences
D. included with Insight Control licenses
E. does not require HP Systems Insight Manager
Answer: C, E

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NO.9 What should you keep in mind when running Capacity Advisor reports?
A. Scenario-based reports use historical data to create the simulated workload data
B. Total system utilization is always greater than the sum of its workloads.
C. Simulated reports are more accurate than those from a direct specification, because the simulated
reports do not add workload on the system.
D. The time required to run a scenario report is significantly longer than the time required to run a
system-based report
Answer: A

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NO.10 What types of performance management reports can be generated from HP SIM Reports->
Performance Management menu? (Select two.)
A. Export Performance Management Data
B. System Summary Report
C. Dynamic Analysis Report
D. System Comparision Report
E. Server Availability Report
Answer: B, E

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NO.11 What functionality is required on the CMS for full Insight Control server migration functionality?
A. Network Time Protocol
B. Internet SCSI initiator
C. a mounted SMP-U CDROM
D. target OS installation file in RDP
Answer: B

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NO.12 How many c-Class blade enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise
Manager 2.0 or later?
A.250
B.1000
C.2000
D.4096
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the globally assigned default utilization limits for CPU and memory for more than 15
consecutive minutes in a Capacity Advisor scenario?
Answer:

NO.14 A customer is using the Insight Control performance management and wants to add their virtual
machine environment of 3 VM hosts and 12 VM guests. How many Insight Control licenses do they need
to manage this environment?
A.3
B.12
C.15
D.16
Answer: A

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NO.15 When using Insight Control 6.0 server migration functionality, how can Windows and Linux 64-bit
migrations be performed?
A. Adding Insight Dynamics for ProLiant Licenses
B. Adding Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager licenses
C. Migrating to a 32-bit virtual machine using P2V, then using V2P to migrate to 64-bit on a physical
ProLiant
D. Using the native 64-bit code in the x64 Windows version to migrage
Answer: D

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NO.16 Where is the Insight Software performance management data sample rate changed?
A. HP Insight Control
B. HP Insight Dynamics
C. HP Management Agents
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: C

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NO.17 Where are HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager(VCEM) licenses applied in VCEM?
A. License page
B. License Manager
C.VC Domain page
D.VC Domain Group page
Answer: C

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NO.18 When adding a new network to the Insight Orchestration network pool that will be using a Static IP
Address Space range of 192.168.1.6 to 192.168.1.6, what should the Network Address be sent to under
the Network Setting tab?
A.192.168.1.0
B.192.168.1.1
C.192.168.1.5
D.192.168.1.255
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are advantage for using HP Virtual Resource Pools?(Select two.)
A. increased data center lifespan
B. increased total resource utilization
C. greater insight and control over energy
D. wire-once, dynamic assembly
E. greater resiliency and flexbility
Answer: B,E

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NO.20 When using Insight Control performance management, what is the default number of samples needed
to determine the status of a server?
A.1
B.5
C.8
D.12
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.3 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.18 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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NO.2 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M37
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which HP Data Protector Software command is used to format a tape?
A. omnifmt
B. omniinit
C. omniformat
D. omniminit
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which shell must be installed on the HP-UX system to perform an HP Data Protector Software 6.1
installation?
A. Korn Shell
B. C-Shell
C. Bourne Shell
D. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.3 After installing an HP Data Protector Software environment, you cannot connect to the HP-UX Cell
Manager. Which command do you use to verify that the services are running?
A. omnitrig -check
B. ps -ef | grep dataprotector
C. cat /etc/services |grep omni
D. omnisv -status
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can you install HP Data Protector Software on a different disk location on UNIX systems?
A. Set the installation destination.
B. Edit the install.cfg file before installation.
C. Create symbolic links before installing HP Data Protector Software.
D. Move HP Data Protector Software after the installation.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can you change from tape drive licensing to capacity-based licensing?
A. Set the appropriate value in theomnirc file.
B. Disk-based storage is automatically detected.
C. Configure the global options file accordingly.
D. Select the Virtual Tape Library option inside the GUI.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y33
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When Centralized Access Control is configured as Automatic, when is a user data tunnel created?
A. when more than one controller is on the network that has the same access control configuration
B. when tunnels are manually configured and available
C. when IPSec is set up between two controllers
D. when a synchronized AP and its controller are on different subnets
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the configuration of an E-MSM760 controller, you find that the default VSC is access controlled.
Which statements are true about an inbound packet on the LAN port which does not have a VLAN tag?
(Select two.)
A. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
B. The packet is associated with that VSC if the packet has a known SSID tag.
C. The packet is dropped as the LAN port will only accept VLAN tagged packets.
D. The packet is associated with the default VSC if it has no matching SSID tag.
E. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Your controller's Team Manager has suffered a catastrophic failure and an Interim Manager has been
selected. Which action is required to allow the Interim Manager to distribute a new software release to its
team members?
A. The Interim Manager is promoted to Team Manager status.
B. The Interim Manager is rebooted and reconfigured as the new Team Manager.
C. The Interim Manager promotes another team member to Team Manager and the new TeamManager
uploads the new software to the team members.
D. Each Team Member is manually upgraded from the Interim Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When would the IP address of the Internet port on an MSM controller be set to "No Address"?
A. when NAT is enabled
B. when only authenticated traffic is passing through the Internet port
C. when NAT is disabled
D. when only VLAN traffic is passing through the Internet port
Answer: D

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NO.5 An HP E-MSM760 Controller receives untagged traffic on its LAN port from a wireless client associated
with an access point from another manufacturer. In a WLAN configured with VSCs 1-4, which VSC will be
selected to pass this traffic?
A. VSC 2
B. VSC 3
C. VSC 4
D. default VSC
Answer: D

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NO.6 After completing the configuration and synchronization of all team members, you discover through your
initial testing that your APs cannot associate with your team controllers. To solve this problem what should
you check?
A. that your VSC DHCP parameters are set correctly
B. that you have enabled your local DHCP server on your Team Manager (controller)
C. that an external DHCP server exists and is operational on your network
D. that DHCP Relay has been configured on all your team members (controllers)
Answer: C

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NO.7 On a VSC, which Traffic Type options can be specified for egress VLANs? (Select three.)
A. default gateway traffic
B. IP filtered traffic
C. authenticated traffic
D. untagged traffic
E. intercepted traffic
F. unauthenticated traffic
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.8 .What are the major benefits of creating a team of controllers? (Select two.)
A. controller redundancy
B. Flow support
C. local DHCP support
D. PPTP client and server support
E. single IP management of all team controllers
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 In order to create a new VLAN in an MSM controller configuration, which path should you take to
access the correct screen?
A. VSCs>[select a VSC]>VSC Profile
B. VSCs>VSC bindings>VLANs
C. Controller>Management>VLANs
D. Controller>Network>Ports
Answer: D

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NO.10 In your existing wireless network you have a variety of E-MSM controllers. Which products are capable
of supporting teaming? (Select two.)
A. E-MSM710
B. E-MSM730
C. E-MSM750
D. E-MSM760
E. E-MSM765zl
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
You have deployed a guest wireless service in the reception area of a marketing firm. The clients
associated with the guest service should be assigned to VLAN 10. When you test the configuration,
clients are being assigned IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 subnet. You view the access controller
configuration shown in the exhibit.
Which command resolves the issue by correctly associating VLAN 10 with the appropriate interface.?
A. [sysname-wlan-st-1] port access vlan 10
B. [sysname-WLAN-ESS1] port access vlan 10
C. [sysname-GigabitEthernet1/0/1] port access vlan 10
D. [sysname-Vlan-interface10] port access vlan 10
Answer: B

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NO.12 which feature should you enable to enhance Layer 2 (L2) roaming?
A. seamless roaming
B. rapid authentication
C. WPA2 Opportunistic Key Caching
D. single network AP hopping
Answer: C

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NO.13 A financial institution needs to deploy 80 access points in their new building. Since the institution is not
interested in purchasing additional wired switches for their LAN infrastructure, which solution should be
recommended to manage the access points?
A. HP A3000-24G-PoE+ Wireless Switch
B. HP A-WX5002 Access Controller
C. HP A-WX5004 Access Controller
D. HP A7500/E7900 Access Controller Module
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of E-MSM controllers that can be configured into a single team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.15 When configuring the MSM controller for a controlled mode network, at which point is the AP's VSC
egress VLAN configured?
A. when the Group is created
B. when the AP is synchronized with its Group
C. when the specified VLAN is created
D. when the VSC is bound to the Group
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y32
Exam Name: HP (Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which action can you take that will help you
discover this new link?
A. Investigate switch syslog information for gateway changes.
B. Compare route tables of both routers.
C. Review LLDP information on subnet 20 root bridge.
D. Follow path cost to root from subnet 20.
E. Initiate a traceroute from both subnets.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
You need to limit the amount of broadcast traffic in this customer's network. In order to do so, you add a
second VLAN, VLAN2 (10.0.1.0/24). Now, clients on VLAN2 cannot reach the Internet and cannot ping
clients on VLAN1. They can successfully ping the default gateway (10.0.1.1). What should you do first to
determine the cause of the problem?
A. Disable broadcast limiting on the core switch.
B. Check the ISP's firewall settings and modify accordingly.
C. Request the configuration of the network devices.
D. Request a network trace from the ISP.
E. Get the MAC address table of the network devices.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which link transitions are blocked on subnet
20?
A. link from 20b to 20c
B. link from 20a to 20c
C. link from 20a to 20b
D. link from 20c to 30b
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
You install two E5400 zl Series switches and connect them with a two-port static trunk. All hosts on both
switches are in VLAN 20. However, some hosts on Core 1 cannot ping some hosts on Core 2 and vice
versa. All hosts can ping all hosts on their own switch. Event logs on the two switches do not show
significant errors. What should you do to determine the cause of this connectivity issue? (Select three.)
A. Use traceroute to determine which device is dropping the ping packets.
B. Verify the trunk configuration on each core switch.
C. Change the IP address for the default VLAN on Core 2 so that it is in the same subnet as the default
VLAN on Core 1.
D. Verify physical connectivity between the switches.
E. Use LLDP to check the identities of the devices and their neighbors.
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 Which step will provide helpful information about the issue?
A. Analyze the port statistics for the client you are pinging from.
B. Compare the arp table entries on the client when it works and when it does not.
C. Analyze the port statistics for the switch to which the client is connected.
D. Analyze the port statistics for all clients in VLAN 2 when the problem occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You install new category 6a home run network cables for all users. You test a random sampling of the
cables, and they all pass. Users are complaining about dropped packets, slowness, and other intermittent
results. What is the best tool to use for initial troubleshooting?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
C. Packet Analyzer
D. HP Intelligent Communications Manager (ICM)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. What is the impact of the user's actions?
A. Internet connectivity to subnet 20 users is broken.
B. STP Root Bridge of Subnet 20 moves.
C. All Subnet 20 traffic is routed through Subnet 30.
D. STP alternate path selection remains unchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which issue does the Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) show?
A. out of phase
B. extensive attenuation
C. loss of [optical] signal
D. bend or kink in the optical cable
E. low frequency roll-off C:\Pasban Work\Cert Paper
Exams\HP\HP0-Y32\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A\23.JPG
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are working with a customer who has reported connectivity issues on a specific VLAN. All of their
clients were previously in VLAN1 until VLAN10 was added in order to limit the amount of broadcast traffic.
Now, the clients on VLAN10 cannot reach the Internet. These clients cannot ping clients on VLAN1, but
can successfully ping the default gateway. Which information will help you troubleshoot this problem?
(Select two.)
A. network topology map
B. uptime of the network devices
C. network IP addressing scheme
D. names of all VLANS
E. a list of the NTP servers on the network
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Based on these basic facts, what can you "rule out" as possible causes of this problem? (Select three.)
A. the external gateway having no route to VLAN 2
B. misconfigured clients in VLAN1
C. a transient layer 1 issue
D. the firewall enabled on the client causing connectivity issues
E. a loop in VLAN1
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: HP2-B68
Exam Name: HP (HP AC Integration and Support Technical-Job Accounting)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When using HP Access Control Job Accounting with Quota, which Microsoft Windows
Application Server component must be installed.?
A. ASP.NET
B. Application Server Console
C. Message Queuing
D. DTC access
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which limitation does the HP Access Control Job Accounting Direct Tracking Module have when
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A. It is limited to the local subnet.
B. A maximum of 50 printers can be discovered.
C. Single function devices are not found.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the best HP Access Control Job Accounting data collector for locally connected devices?
A. Print Client
B. Direct Tracking Module
C. Print Server
D. In-Printer Agent
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E40
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration-Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 23 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your customer asks why she shouldn t buy the visual collaboration products directly from Vidyo or one
of their channel partners.How should you respond to this customer?
A.Tell the customer that HP has modified the software code to add new features and make it a higher
quality experience for the end user.
B.Advise the customer that HP offers several cost-savings features that are not offered by other vendors
of the product.
C.Explain that HP offers a complete solution including endpoints, infrastructure, services, networking and
on-going support.
D.Tell the customer that only HP has the knowledge and expertise to successfully integrate the products
into the customer s current infrastructure.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer is concerned that because it is SVC-based, buying HP Visual Collaboration will lock
them into a proprietary solution.How should you respond to this customer? (Select two.)
A.Tell the customer not to worry; it is not important that the solution interoperate with other endpoints.
B.Advise the customer that HP is currently participating in several industry organizations that are focused
on interoperability.
C.Explain that HP believes that SVC will become an industry standard, so interoperability will not be an
issue.
D.Tell the customer that all SVC-based endpoints from different vendors interoperate, so this is not an
issue.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 You are discussing the HP Visual Collaboration with a potential customer.Which key selling points
should you present? (Select two.)
A.HPVC uses HP proprietary hardware, services, and solutions to provide the best visual experiences
company-wide.
B.HPVC lowers capital costs and simplifies management with a scalable infrastructure.
C.HPVC reaches anyone face-to-face in LD, without the high cost of proprietary hardware.
D.HPVC lowers travel costs and improves productivity for the entire workforce.
Answer: D

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