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Exam Code: HP0-S21
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 enclosure and six server blades in a data center with limited
power. What can they do to ensure the solution fits within the available data center power envelope?
A. Make sure they have three L15-30 power receptacles available.
B. Use the HPBladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C. Use the HP Rack and Power Tool to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
D. Make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power to every enclosure.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What do you need to consider when installing mezzanine cards in an HP ProLiant BL685c G6 Server
Blade? (Select two.)
A. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in slots 2 and/or 3 if they match the interconnect module type.
B. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module type.
C. Type 2 mezzanine cards need to be installed in slot 1 and match the interconnect module type.
D. Type 1 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module type.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You are troubleshooting a performance issue on a BL460c Server Blade with a Linux operating system
installed. Which command should you use to get comprehensive memory information?
A. iostat
B. glance
C. free
D. memdiag
Answer: C

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NO.4 "This type of node is used for most tasks, including computing many types of applications. These
nodes also provide I/O and file system access, usually in the form of an HBA to access an MSA2000
subsystem, or an external SAN."
Which HP Cluster Platform node does this definition refer to?
A. Storage Node
B. Utility Node
C. Visualization Node
D. Compute Node
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. blue
B. white
C. black
D. brown
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which feature does HP Modular Cooling System (MCS) provide that other solutions do not?
A. hot-swappable fans and heat exchangers
B. enhanced racks that do not affect the noise level of the data center
C. environmental control
D. 42U racks with three-phase power support
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which industry standard memory technologies can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A. chip spare
B. mirrored memory
C. parity memory
D. online spare memory
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of Cisco 3120 Switches that can be combined into a single logical
stack?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 12
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which operating system or systems require FTP services if you are going to use the HP Insight Rapid
Deployment 3.8 solution for deployment?
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Red HatEnterprise Linux Server
C. HP-UX v2 and HP-UX v3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which logical extension of the HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Suite provides failure protection for logical
servers?
A. Insight Orchestration
B. Insight Rapid Deployment
C. Insight Systems Manager
D. Insight Recovery Software
prerequisite
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is required when you install and deploy an HP BladeSystem c7000 enclosure that has a
three-phase power module?
A. A minimum of three c-Class power supply modules must be installed.
B. Six power supplies must be installed.
C. Both active and redundant Onboard Administrator modules must be installed.
D. A full-height server blade must be installed in Bay 8.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which industry standard management protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. DMI
D. XML
E. SMTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which HP Insight Control Suite software provides centralized capture, monitor, report, and control of
HP BladeSystem power consumption and thermal output?
A. HPProLiant Insight Power Regulator
B. HPProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. HP Insight Power Manager
D. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
Answer: C

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NO.14 Microsoft Cluster Server is an example of which type of clustering architecture?
A. shared-memory
B. High-Performance Computing
C. shared-everything
D. shared-nothing
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which Brocade SAN Switch feature allows you to connect the internal SAN Switches of a c7000 to a
Cisco fabric without raising the switch hop count?
A. Access Gateway Mode
B. Inter-Switch LinkTrunking
C. Extended Fabric
D. Enhanced Group Management
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are capabilities of HP Insight Dynamics - VSE? (Select four.)
A. facilitates a highly complex solution
B. provisions infrastructure consistently
C. balances physical and virtual resources
D. creates a homogeneous environment
E. plans capacity and power continuously
F. enables cost-effective availability
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.17 What are the customer benefits of licensing all the HP ProLiant BL-series server blades with an HP
iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license? (Select two.)
A. supports scripted multi-server support for virtual media
B. provides support for two-factor authentication for enhanced enterprise security
C. activates the secured virtual KVM terminal pass-thru console
D. allows local use of RBSU
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which benefits do you gain from migrating traditional rack mounted servers into an HP
BladeSystem c7000 Virtual Connect solution? (Select two.)
A. decreased dependency on facility cooling to host the business applications
B. consolidation of infrastructure, power, and cooling
C. ability to power c7000BladeSystem chassis using standard 5-15 power receptacles
D. virtualization of logical LAN/SAN connections that enables simplified management and
provisioning
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Which feature is used in conjunction with the Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A. OpenSSH
B. LDAP
C. BitLocker
D. HP SIM
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which component is required to connect a c-Class server blade to an HP StorageWorks MSA
2012sa?
A. Smart Array P700m
B. Smart Array P411
C. HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card
D. Smart Array E200i
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E19
Exam Name: HP (HP Partner Fundamentals 2009)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are roles of a HP Partner Account Manager? (Select two.)
A. helps users manage their forecast
B. ensures the optimal skill levels are in place
C. provides access to HP corporate hospitality events
D. provides assistance in the development of the Partner Business Growth Plan
Answer: BD

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NO.2 What does IT investment provide customers? (Select two.)
A. reduced prices
B. increased footprints
C. return on investment
D. better levels of service
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which is certification an important part of being a Preferred Partner? (Select two.)
A. Employers demand it.
B. It is a key criterion for becoming a Preferred Partner.
C. It is important to be able to demonstrate ability to pass exams.
D. It demonstrates a specific area of expertise, and customers want to work with experts.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which statements are true about the HP Preferred Partner Program? (Select two.)
A. It is a program for distributors.
B. It is a program for printing Partners only.
C. It is highly respected by channel Partners and analysts.
D. It is a channel program that spans the entire HP portfolio.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 What are the key measurement criteria for Preferred Partners? (Select two.)
A. selling all HP products
B. fulfiling revenue targets
C. gathering customer testamonials
D. attaining minimum certification levels
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which business unit introduced two extra specialization tracks?
A. ISS
B. PNB
C. HPS
D. BCS
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the benefits of being an HP Preferred Partner? (Select two.)
A. demonstrates commitments to customers
B. enables Partners to sell at greater discount
C. provides access to Partner Co-Marketing Activities
D. provides access to HP's multimillion dollar marketing program and brand recognition
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which business units have introduced a Virtualisation specialization? (Select two.)
A. IPG
B. ESS
C. PNB
D. PSG
Answer: BD

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NO.9 When can a Partner join the HP Preferred Partner Program upon completion of the defined criteria?
A. monthly
B. annually
C. quarterly
D. every half year
Answer: B

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NO.10 Preferred Partners in EMEA are a very important part of the HP channel.
A. less than 5%
B. less than 10%
C. greater than 70%
D. greater than 90%
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S26
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How does the standard warranty on a ProLiant DL165 Server differ from that of a ProLiant DL320
Server?
A. There is no difference in warranty terms between the DL165 and DL320.
B. No onsite support for DL165; 3 years onsite support for the DL320
C. 3 years parts and labor for the DL165; 1 year parts and labor for the DL320
D. 1 year parts and labor for the DL165; 3 years parts and onsite labor for the DL320
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about SAN/Fabric Switch Care Pack service level support?
A. It need not be uplifted to match existing storage or server service level.
B. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by separate Care
Packs.
C. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by the Care Pack.
D. It does not cover the Ethernet interconnect and virtual connect modules.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does an HP SIM CMS running on Windows use to record various error, warning, and informational
events that occur during runtime?
A. Windows Event Log
B. HP SIM Select Options ? Events
C. System Management Homepage
D. CPQSetup.log
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants you to create a third LUN on a connected MSA2000. After you do this, what must you
do to make it visible to the host within the Windows operating system? (Select two.)
A. Enable BIOS on the first and (if available) second fc-adapter.
B. Present the LUN with the WWN number of the FC card installed in the server.
C. Boot the connected server from SmartStart 8.x, use Array Configuration Utility, and allow the host to
access the new LUN.
D. Restart your server or select Disk Management, right-click, and select Rescan Disk.
E. Add the new LUN-WWN to zoning of the fc-fabric.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which tool is best suited to replicate the RBSU settings across multiple ProLiant DL300 Series servers?
A. HP SIM
B. RDU
C. ACU
D. CONREP
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which services do you need installed to use the HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)
Deployment Server Web Console? (Select two.)
A. ASP.NET.
B. WAIK 2.1
C. Framework.net 2.0
D. Framework.net 1.1
E. IIS
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 You are adding a second Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Small Form Factor (SFF) drive cage to a ProLiant
ML350 G6 Server. The server has a Smart Array 410i Controller. The customer has ordered the cage,
cables and drives. Why are you unable to complete this task?
A. The second drive cage installation requires a SAS expander board.
B. The second drive cage installation requires all eight inch SAS cables.
C. The SA410i does not support this configuration.
D. The SA410i must have a 512MB with BBWC option installed.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which agent is used for HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP) on Windows Server 2008?
A. DAClient
B. AClient
C. DAgent
D. ADLAgent
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which changes to clustering are included in Windows Server 2008? (Select two.)
A. Clusters are x64-based and now support up to 32 nodes.
B. Cluster nodes can have their IP addresses assigned by DHCP.
C. Geographically dispersed clusters cannot span subnets.
D. Failover clusters are built around a more resilient and customizable quorum model.
E. GUID partition table (GPT) disks are not supported.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which utility is used to create an output file containing information about the disk controller order on a
reference server that can be used for replication?
A. ORCA
B. CONREP
C. ADU
D. CPQDISK
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J35
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector software Application Integration-Windows)
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Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of devices used in a backup session for Microsoft Exchange?
A. one for the complete backup specification
B. equal to the number of databases within a storage group
C. equal to the number of storage groups
D. unlimited, as the storage group can be sub-divided into many objects
Answer: C

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NO.2 What should be considered when SAP/R3 is backed up using backint?
A. BRBACKUP cannot be used to back up SAP/R3.
B. It is impossible to perform incremental backups.
C. The backup objects must be manually propagated to the internal database.
D. Hot database backup cannot be performed on the data files.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which filesystem is supported for the backup of VSS writers?
A. NTFS
B. DFSR
C. NDMP
D. CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the primary function of an application integration agent?
A. offline backup
B. synthetic full backup
C. hot database backup
D. split mirror backup
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do you back up Microsoft Exchange databases within a storage group?
A. sequentially
B. oldest files first
C. in parallel
D. longest filenames first
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.2 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.14 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.15 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP2-H08
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops , Workstations , and Notebooks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is inhibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convertDisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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NO.7 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. WindowsVista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.10 Identify two BIOS security features introduced with the HP BIOS based on Unified Extensible Firmware
Interface (UEFI). (Select two.)
A. system recovery
B. BIOS user accounts
C. boot device options
D. SpareKey
E. DriveLock
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HPTouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.18 An HP product carries a 3-3-3 warranty. What does this mean?
A. The product carries a 3 year parts, 3 year labor warranty, with no onsite service.
B. The product carries a nine year warranty on all parts, labor, and updates.
C. The product carries a 3 year parts, labor, and onsite service warranty.
D. The product carries an advanced replacement warranty.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-K14
Exam Name: HP (Supporting HP ProLiant Storage Server Workgroup Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which term describes two or more interconnected nodes that present a single virtual server to the
network?
A. cluster
B. NIC team
C. Multipathing
D. fault tolerance
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which networking technology includes network failover?
A. NIC Teaming
B. TCP Offload Engine
C. multi-protocol bridging
D. Network Acceleration Cards
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which solution enables a customer to maintain a continuous replica of data on a second storage
server?
A. Microsoft Cluster Service
B. HP OpenView Data Protector
C. Volume Shadow Copy Service
D. HP OpenView Storage Mirroring
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are at a customer site to repair an HP StorageWorks 1200 All-in-One (AiO) Storage System in
a redundant AiO environment.
Which data replication solution can be implemented to replicate data between the two AiO
systems?
A. HP StorageWorks Storage Mirroring
B. HP Continuous Access for SMB storage
C. HP Data Replication Manager for NAS products
D. HP StorageWorks Fast Recovery Solution 2003 AiO
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which storage infrastructure typically uses file level data access
A. Internet SCSI
B. storage area network
C. direct attached storage
D. network attached storage
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T18
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ProLiant Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which statement regarding ProLiant iVirtualization is true?
A. VMwareESXi is supported on ProLiant SL G6 series servers.
B. ParallelsVirtuozzo Containers ship standard on ProLiant server blades.
C. Applications must be installed onProLiant G6 SD flash memory devices.
D. Citrix or VMware is installed on a USB key or SD card inside the server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The CIO priorities categorized in the exhibit capture an understanding of current business priority
trends. What can you accomplish by focusing on these trends?
A. By becoming familiar with the customer's daily operation process, you can avoid problems when
defining IT outcomes.
B. By learning to measure success in IT statistics, you can pinpoint areas of focus to deliver added value.
C. By understanding the customer's most desired business outcomes, you can tailor a solution to fit a
specific need.
D. By focusing on the customer's service-level agreements, you can establish expectations regarding
ongoing IT projects.
Answer: C

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Match the type of clustering solution with its description.
NOTICE Scroll down to see all available items.
Answer:

NO.4 Which customer pain points can be relieved through virtualization? (Select two.)
A. data vulnerability
B. low system utilization
C. high IT operational costs
D. processing power demands
E. resource-intensive applications
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which HP technology simplifies setup, health monitoring, power and thermal control, and remote
administration of ProLiant ML, DL, and BL servers?
A. Dynamic Power Capping
B. ProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. Virtual Control
D. Thermal Logic
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the primary business challenges facing companies in today's economy? (Select two.)
A. cloud computing solution development
B. increased data generation
C. service level agreement management
D. high energy costs
E. customer-centric revenue growth
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 HOTSPOT
Your customer is transforming their existing data center because the dynamic nature of their business
requires that they respond rapidly to market changes. They want faster deployment and serviceability of
their servers. Which HP ProLiant server solution should you propose for this customer?
Answer:

NO.8 Which HP server blade is designed specifically to be the backbone of a virtualization
infrastructure?
A. BL495c G6
B. BL685c G6
C. BL860c
D. BL2x220c G5
Answer: B

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NO.9 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that names the HP portfolio that helps customers centralize and target
business intelligence for a competitive advantage.
Answer:

NO.10 Which business trend puts increasing pressure on the CIO to be measured in terms of overall business
outcomes?
A. the paradigm shift to an emphasis on the quantity of the content
B. an understanding of how the world economic climate affects the CIO's role
C. the view that IT powers the business
D. a focus on measurable business results
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which component of HP Insight Dynamics automates the process of moving drivers, data, applications,
and operating systems from a physical machine to a virtual machine?
A. Virtual Machine Management Pack
B. Insight Server Migration
C. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D. Insight Orchestration
Answer: B

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NO.12 Solid state storage is an emerging technology for disk drives. The latest drive designs meet the capacity,
performance, and reliability requirements of a ProLiant server environment. Which ProLiant G6 server
series features solid state drives?
A. ProLiant BL G6 servers
B. ProLiant DL G6 servers
C. ProLiant ML G6 servers
D. ProLiant SL G6 servers
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which HP server blade is designed for SMB customers and small business sites?
A. ProLiant BL2x220c
B. ProLiant BL260c
C. ProLiant BL685c
D. Integrity BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your financial services customer is concerned about the security of their electronic transactions.
They have asked you to recommend a hardware-based security technology that will enable them to store
passwords and encryption keys. What should you recommend for this customer?
A. aProLiant ML150 G6 with Turbo Boost Technology
B. aProLiant DL160 G6 with HP SIM and WebIM Agents
C. aProLiant DL370 G6 with the TPM option
D. aProLiant BL685c G6 with Flex-10 support
Answer: C

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NO.15 HOTSPOT
You are proposing a solution for a customer who wants to maximize the amount of features that they can
pack into the limited space in their data center. They intend to run Microsoft clusters with a SAN
environment, but have only three-phase power to the facility. Which ProLiant solution should you propose
for this customer?
Answer:

NO.16 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that names the HP portfolio that helps customers gain control of their IT
environment by managing their applications.
Answer:

NO.17 Which type of customers face challenges that are addressed by HP BladeSystems?
A. startup businesses without dedicated IT staff
B. new customers implementing their first SAN storage arrays
C. customers in emerging business markets with new rack servers
D. enterprise customers looking to postponemigrating their data centers
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP service allows customers to buy just the targeted services they need, when they need them?
A. Critical Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Proactive Select
D. Care Pack Extended Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which component of ProLiant ML150 Series G6 servers has self-executing software consisting of
drivers that help with server deployment?
A. Insight Foundation Suite forProLiant
B. Insight Management WBEM Providers
C. Software Smart Components
D. SmartStart
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the key pillars where HP applies its research and development resources? (Select three.)
A. advanced training and education
B. power and cooling efficiency
C. strong partnerships
D. new technology development
E. business production processes
F. insight into solving customer problems
Answer: B,D,E

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HP2-Z04 questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP2-Z04
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Campus LANs)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You have created a port trunk consisting of three links between two HP ProCurve switches: Switch A
and Switch B. When Device C sends a packet to Server D, Switch A forwards the packet over link 1 in the
trunk. Which statement is true about how Switch A will transmit the next packet between Device C and
Server D?
A. It will send the packet over link 1 unless link 1 has reached the congestion threshold.
B. It will send the packet over link 2 or link 3.
C. It will send the packet over any of the three links, selected randomly.
D. It will send the packet over link 1.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A multicast packet is received on a switch in a VLAN that does not have IGMP enabled. How is the
packet handled?
A. The packet is flooded to a subset of the hosts on the VLAN, based on the source IP address of the
multicast stream.
B. The packet is transmitted on all ports that belong to the VLAN.
C. Because the routing interface for the VLAN has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to
join the multicast, the packet is dropped.
D. Because the switch has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to join the multicast, the
packet is flooded to all Rendezvous Points for proper routing.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must be enabled on a Cisco switch for Cisco PVST+ to interoperate with ProCurve devices
running 802.1s (MSTP) spanning tree?
A. VLAN 4096
B. the native VLAN
C. PVST+ compatibility mode
D. 802.1s (MSTP) compatibility mode
E. VLAN 1
Answer: E

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NO.4 Your company's security policies require managers to use HTTPS to access Web browser interfaces
of infrastructure products. Which tasks must you complete on each product? (Select two.)
A. Generate a self-signed server certificate for HTTPS.
B. Install a server certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
C. Install a client certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
D. Generate a certificate revocation list for HTTPS.
E. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 Which value composes the unique byte of a Master VRRP router's MAC address?
A. the default priority of the original VRRP Master
B. a random number between 1-255 that is generated when the VRRP instance is created
C. the Master's loopback address
D. the ID associated with the VRRP instance
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want a ProCurve switch to send SNMPv2c traps to a management station. What must you
configure? (Select two.)
A. the correct SNMP encryption password
B. the IP address of the host that will receive the traps
C. SNMP Read/Write access to the host that will receive the traps
D. the correct SNMP username and password for the host that will receive the traps
E. the SNMP community string of the host that will receive the traps
Answer: B, E

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NO.7 Your network includes only one DHCP server, which is in a different VLAN from many DHCP clients.
Which statement is true about configuring a DHCP Helper address on the DHCP clients' VLANs?
A. The DHCP Helper address converts the VLAN tag of the client's broadcasts to allow the DHCP server
to assign the correct unicast IP address.
B. The DHCP Helper address is not required because switches automatically forward DHCP requests to
the appropriate DHCP servers.
C. The DHCP Helper includes a list of addresses that the switch assigns to clients in unicast DHCP
replies.
D. For the DHCP clients' broadcasts to reach the server, the switch must translate them to traffic directed
to the DHCP helper address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) does an Area Border Router (ABR) send into one
area to advertise a summary route to all networks in another area?
A. type 5
B. type 3
C. type 2
D. type 1
Answer: B

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NO.9 A router has several interfaces that are all in the same OSPF areas. You want the router to receive a
default route and summary routes but no routes that have been redistributed into OSPF from another
routing method. How should you define the router's OSPF area?
A. Stub Area
B. Not-So-Stubby Area
C. transit Area
D. type 3 area
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is correct about security technology implemented in SNMPv3?
A. SNMPv3 applies authentication keys and algorithms to management traffic so that the recipient can
verify that packets have not been tampered with.
B. SNMPv3 utilizes symmetric cryptography, which uses a pair of mathematically related hash functions
to encrypt and decrypt messages.
C. SNMPv3 uses hash functions and encryption algorithms such as MD5 and SHA-1.
D. When using the AES algorithm with SNMPv3, it produces a larger message digest than the DES
algorithm.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You want to establish a WAN connection using an X.21 cable. What is the correct Layer 2 protocol to
configure on your router to support this connection?
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. HDLC
D. PPPoE
Answer: A

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NO.12 What does Secure Shell (SSH) use to conceal the content management traffic from eavesdroppers?
A. asymmetric cryptography
B. symmetric cryptography
C. message authentication codes
D. username and password authentication
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which parameter should you configure on an Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) to allow it to
produce special Link State Advertisements (LSAs) that advertise external routes in a stub area?
A. Not-So-Stubby Area
B. Static Route Mapping
C. Stub Area
D. Backup Designated Router
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of untagged VLAN assignments on each port of an HP ProCurve Switch
3500yl-24PoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. the number set with the max-VLANs command
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is achieved by a shared secret, configured on both the RADIUS server and the RADIUS client?
(Select two.)
A. It defines the authentication domain.
B. It authenticates the server and client to each other.
C. It sets the password for users allowed to connect to the network.
D. It sets the password for switch managers.
E. It verifies the integrity of RADIUS messages. placed in blocking
Answer: B, E

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NO.16 .An IT manager wants to form a dynamic LACP trunk between two switches to increase bandwidth in
the network. What are valid configurations for achieving this goal? (Select two.)
A. Switch 1 ports = LACP Passive; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
B. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Active
C. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
D. Switch 1 ports = HP Trunking; Switch 2 ports = LACP trunking
E. Switch 1 ports = 100FDx; Switch 2 ports = 1000FDx
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 You are attempting to estimate the range of your wireless access point's signal. Which factors affect
the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) of its radio?
A. data rate and signal attenuation
B. cable loss and antenna gain
C. traffic patterns and antenna gain
D. transmit power and signal attenuation
Answer: B

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NO.18 You have configured values for the Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID, and Tunnel-Medium-Type
attributes in a policy on your RADIUS server. Which dynamic setting(s)
have you created?
A. dynamic ACL only
B. dynamic VLAN only
C. dynamic rate limit only
D. dynamic rate limit and dynamic VLAN
E. dynamic ACL and dynamic VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are running Secure Shell (SSH) on your HP ProCurve switch, and you want to authenticate the
device that you use to manage the switch using the SSH-Client-Public-Key method. What must you do?
A. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the client private key to the switch.
B. Generate a public and private key pair on the switch.
C. Copy the switch public and private key pair to the client.
D. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the public key to the switch.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which security technology in Internet Key Exchange (IKE) allows endpoints to generate secure keys
without agreeing to them beforehand?
A. AES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. HMAC
Answer: B

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