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Exam Code: CAT-060
Exam Name: CA (CA Spectrum Infrastructure Manager r9)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When you need to customize an existing subview:
A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-200
Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Administrator Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 What are the components of a notification rule? (Choose three)
A. Services
B. Contacts
C. Constraints
D. Condition macro
E. Message template
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 On which tab can you find Incidents related to a Problem?
A. Event Log tab
B. Knowledge tab
C. Attachments tab
D. Attached Incidents tab
Answer: D

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NO.3 Level 1 CA Service Desk Analysts can use the CA Service Desk Quick Profile page to:
A. Create templates
B. Search knowledge documents for relevant information
C. Search for information about the end user during a support call.
D. Access the end user's computer and resolve the problem during the call.
Answer: C

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NO.4 For the Level 2 Analyst role, which additional My Queue items can you view on the Scoreboard?
(Choose two)
A. My Incidents
B. My Requests
C. My Problems
D. My Change Orders
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Each CA Service Desk role record MUST be configured with:
A. One form group
B. One service type
C. Three work shifts,
D. Two data partitions.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAT-500
Exam Name: CA (CA Process Automation r4.x Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Exit links from an And operator are activated only after:
A. Any entry link to the And operator has been activated.
B. All entry links to the And operator have been activated.
C. The first entry link to the And operator has been activated.
D. The first and second entry links to the And operator have been activated.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are exporting automation objects from a User Acceptance Testing (UAT) environment to a
production environment.
You should provide instructions for groups that will: (Choose two)
A. Invoke objects.
B. Maintain the environment.
C. Determine which processes can be split into subprocesses.
D. Verify that the solution works according to functional requirements.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 When you configure host groups, which steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Lock the environment.
B. Associate the host group to at least one agent.
C. Specify the credentials to connect to the remote host using Secure Shell (SSH).
D. Create a trust relationship between the hosts in the group and a target remote host referenced in
the group.
E. Specify the touch point name that content designers will use as the target for operations directed
at the group.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You have successfully completed the Web Services Description Language (WSDL) wizard.
Now you need to select an input source for the Invoke SOAP Method operator. Which input source
is INVALID?
A. WSDL URL
B. In line text
C. Expression
D. Preformatted Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) file
Answer: A

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NO.5 Sue White is responsible for approving notebook upgrades. Sue is notified by email that she
needs to approve an upgrade request. When Sue logs into CA Process Automation and right clicks
the task, which menu options are available? (Choose two)
A. Take
B. Reply
C. Escalate
D. Approve
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 During which process development phase do you typically create a runbook?
A. Requirements Analysis
B. Testing and Deployment
C. Design and Implementation
D. Production and Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about manipulating XML data in CA Process Automation is TRUE?
A. CA Process Automation defines its own XPath query syntax.
B. The applyXPath operator can be used to extract data from an XML document.
C. CA Process Automation contains no system functions related to XML or XPath.
D. In a CA Process Automation operator, if data returned from a Simple Object Access Protocol
(SOAP) call is in XML format, you cannot retrieve the value of a specific XML element in this data.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The process you are designing requires parameters to be passed to a child process. You will
therefore need to edit the data initialization code of the Start Process operator. To pass the
parameters to the child process, which syntax should you use?
A. Process.x = Caller.x;
B. Caller.x = Process.x;
C. Process.x == Caller.x;
D. Process. x = Process. y;
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAT-040
Exam Name: CA (CA eHealth r6 Administrator Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose
four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.2 In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-340
Exam Name: CA (CA IdentityMinder r12.x Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 During Exchange Agent configuration, which step do you perform?
A. Install an Exchange server remote agent on the Provisioning Server.
B. Configure the CAM and CAFT Service to be started by the system account.
C. Configure inbound mappings to map Exchange events to CA IdentityMinder tasks.
D. Configure CAFTHOST to recognize the C++ Connector Server (CCS) and the CA IdentityMinder
clients.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which event context information object method returns the name of the person who
submitted the task that generated an event?
A. getOrgName()
B. getEventName()
C. getAdminName()
D. getPrimaryObjectName()
Answer: C

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NO.3 You need to import a large number of managed users to the CA Identity Minder User Store
simultaneously.Having explored the various options, the Bulk Loader method seems the best option.
However, which limitation do you need to be aware of before you begin?
A. It may use large amounts of memory.
B. It cannotbe mapped to a workflow process.
C. It does not support the execution of identity policies.
D. It bypasses audit and security mechanisms provided by the Task Server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When you configure the Report Server, which guideline should you follow?
A. Always restart the environment after you configure reporting.
B. Set all systems involved in reportingto the same time zone and time.
C. To avoid port conflicts with JBoss, change the default port numbers in the CRConfig.xml file.
D. Configure the connection with the Provisioning Server before you configure the connection with
the Snapshot Database.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When you export CA IdentityMinder environment settings, you generate a ZIP file containing
which files? (Choose three)
A. alias_environment.xml
B. alias_environment_roles.xml
C. alias_environment_users.xml
D. alias_environment_settings.xml
E. alias_environment_mappings.xml
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: CAT-240
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-19

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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.1 When creating a Dashboard for a series of metrics that are all based on percentile values, what is the
MOST appropriate Data option for these values.?
A. Choose the Auto Expand option on the Scale tab.
B. Choose Show Minimum and Maximum Values on the Miscellaneous tab.
C. Choose the Pin At option on the Scale tab and set the Minimum and Maximum values at 0 and
100.
D. Place a check in the Enable Filter box on the Sort/Filter tab and Filter by the Metrics with topmost
values of 100.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When creating a report, where do you specify the metrics on which the report is based?
A. Text tab
B. Data Properties tab
C. Display Properties tab
D. Default Data Properties tab
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement about CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domains is TRUE?
A. A domain cannot contain applications.
B. A domain can contain multiple applications.
C. A domain can only contain a single application.
D. An application managed by CA CEM is known as a domain.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which transaction recording methods are available in CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)?
(Choose three)
A. Agent
B. Script
C. Manual
D. Automatic
E. Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.1 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When you need to customize an existing subview:
A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 The preferred scripting language for developing Environment Performance Agent (EPA) plugins is:
A. Perl
B. Python
C. JavaScript
D. Shell script
Answer: C

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NO.2 Each element in a report template maps to a single:
A. Metric
B. PDF file
C. Dashboard
D. Metric grouping
Answer: A

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NO.3 An element that is a logical grouping of metrics treated as a single element is known as a:
A. Report
B. Calculator
C. Dashboard
D. Metric Grouping
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement about the Historical Query Viewer is TRUE?
A. It can be used to view errors from a command line.
B. It is a web-based alternative to the Live Error Viewer.
C. It can be used to open XML files containing error data.
D. It is a free open source utility that users without CA Introscope can use to view error data produced by
CA Introscope.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must you configure for the Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM) to see network traffic sent by a web
server?
A. A full transaction
B. The monitor interface
C. The IP address of the web server
D. The requesting user s login credentials
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which metric type measures the number of incomplete requests during a time interval?
A. Stall Count
B. Instance counts
C. Errors Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the Metric name in this Metric path?
H04|VVAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
A. H04
B. Servlets
C. Stall Count
D. WAS_Node
Answer: C

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NO.9 A group of business transactions in a CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domain is known as
a:
A. business service
B. business transaction
C. transaction parameter
D. transaction component
Answer: A

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NO.10 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Summary alert S is made up of single alerts 1, 2, and 3. Currently, the states of the alerts are as
follows: Alert 1: caution
Alert 2: caution
Alert 3: danger
What is the color of alert S?
A. Red
B. White
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: A

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NO.12 Significant changes were introduced for CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) version 5.0. A
new CA CEM server deployment model is:
A. software only
B. v5.0 appliance only
C. legacy appliance only
D. virtual appliance only
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of file stores all items contained in a management module?
A. Zip
B. Package (PKG)
C. Java Archive (JAR)
D. Tape archive (TAR)
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement about tracer groups is TRUE?
A. They are defined in XML files.
B. You can activate component tracing at the class level only.
C. After you activate component tracing, you need to restart the Enterprise Manager.
D. Agent performance can be improved by modifying the default metric set to monitor only the necessary
classes.
Answer: D

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NO.15 CA Introscopy holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

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NO.16 You can configure CA Introscope ErrorDetector to ignore certain errors by editing which file?
A. errors.pbd
B. ErrorDetector.profile
C. IntroscopeAgent.profile
D. IntroscopeEnterpriseManager.profile
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the name of the .jar file containing the CLW.?
A. CLW.jar
B. CLWorkstation.jar
C. CommandLine.jar
D. CommandLineWorkstation.jar
Answer: B

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NO.18 While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine
whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation
feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which file should you create to change certain default CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)
settings, such as baseline duration?
A. Web.xml
B. TESS -default. Properties
C. EM-baseline.properties
D. TESS-customer.properties
Answer: A

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NO.20 CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET
Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for
collecting this data?
A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which statements about HTTP sessions are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Only large objects, such as shopping carts should be stored in the session object.
B. Each HTTPSession object has a parameter that you can set to specify the session timeout value.
C. If users do not log out of the HTTP session, the object remains in memory until a timeout is reached.
D. Data structures created to support HTTP sessions cannot be reclaimed by the garbage collector (GC).
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 In CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM), the name of the file used for local authentication is:
A. users.xml
B. passwd.xml
C. security.xml
D. authenticate.xml
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which step do you need to perform before you install CA Introscope ChangeDetector?
A. Stop all Enterprise Managers in your system.
B. Verify that you are using CA Introscope 9.0 or newer.
C. Set the ChangeDetector properties in IntroscopeAgent.profile.
D. Identify the <agent_home>, <Introscope_home>, and <Workstation_home> directories for CA
Introscope.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which metrics are MOST suitable for building alerts? (Choose three)
A. Stall Count
B. Errors Per Interval
C. Responses Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
E. Average Response Time (ms)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.25 Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer?
(Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.26 Which graph displays the most information within a single view?
A. Dashboard
B. Box-Whisker
C. Defect Pareto
D. Standard Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.27 If you want to limit an Event Database search to error events only, which query should you use?
A. type:normal
B. type:sampled
C. type:errorsnapshot
D. type:whatsinteresting
Answer: C

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NO.28 You want to configure the list of keys that identify URL Groups in this agent. Which configuration
parameter will enable you to do this?
A. introscope.agent.urlgroup.keys
B. introscope.autoprobe.directivesFile
C. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.format
D. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.pathprefix
Answer: D

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NO.29 Deleting a management module:
A. Removes the associated jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager.
B. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager and makes no
changes to the file.
C. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but copies it to a
folder named MM_old.
D. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but renames it by
appending the suffix?.inactive?.
Answer: A

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NO.30 You need an instruction in your Probe Builder Directive (PBD) to skip monitoring of all get() methods in
a given Tracer Group. Which command will do this?
A. SkipClass
B. SkipClassForFlag
C. SkipMethodForFlag
D. SkipMethodForClass
Answer: A

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NO.31 In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after
an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile
file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports Metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD
files.
Answer: B

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NO.32 When you create metric groupings in the Investigator, you specify the data you want the metric
grouping to display, using regular expression language from Perl 5 in the metric grouping Agent
Expressions and Metric Expressions fields. A fully qualified metric name of a metric in a Resource looks
like this:
Acme|c1737019-a|AcmeUSA|AcmeWest|GC Heap:BytesIn Use
In this example, what does AcmeWest represent?
A. Domain
B. Process
C. Resource
D. Agent name
Answer: D

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NO.33 CA Introscope ChangeDetector configuration properties are stored in: A. Change-detector.xml
B. IntroscopeAgent.properties
C. ChangeDetector-config.xml
D. ChangeDetector-properties.xml
Answer: C

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NO.34 A summary alert notification includes: (Choose three)
A. time stamps
B. transaction traces
C. a summary alert name
D. the current state of the summary alert
E. details of the user-defined time period for checking the current state of each underlying simple alert
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NO.35 In the Dashboard Editor, the palette consists of static content tools and:
A. Data viewers
B. View creators
C. Data view creators
D. Dynamic content tools
Answer: A

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NO.36 You have decided that it is unnecessary to show socket-level metrics in your system and want to
disable the SocketTracing tracer group. Which command will enable you to do this?
A. TurnOff: SocketTracing
B. //TurnOn: SocketTracing
C. --TurnOn: SocketTracing
D. #TurnOn: SocketTracing
Answer: D

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NO.37 For reporting purposes, data from Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) is aggregated daily. By default,
this occurs at:
A. noon
B. 9:00 AM
C. 3:00 AM
D. midnight
Answer: D

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NO.38 CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) records specific client transactions and never stores
private parameters. An example of a private parameter is a:
A. Password
B. client name
C. transaction name
D. transaction signature
Answer: A

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NO.39 You are viewing a dashboard that displays data from 10 different Agents. You want to isolate and view
data from three Agents, which you suspect may be affected by a problem. What must you do to enable
this?
A. Activate the Console Lens feature
B. Activate the Historical Query feature and select multiple time periods
C. Select the Show Module and Domain names with Dashboard Name option
D. Create multiple copies of Dashboards, each one designed to show data from a different Agent
Answer: A

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NO.40 You want to set up CA Introscopy so that users are always using the most up-to-date version of the
client. Which mechanism enables you to do this?
A. WebView
B. Workstation
C. Transaction Tracer
D. Web Start Workstation
Answer: D

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NO.1 You need to check the NTFS permissions for the folder in which the CA Productivity Accelerator (CAPA)
developer application files are installed. Which permissions should be set for this folder.? (Choose three)
A. List
B. Read
C. Delete
D. Modify
E. Execute
Answer: A,B,E

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A. portlet pages
B. pages with tabs
C. pages without tab
D. pages with a Content action
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which functions apply to an NQSL query? (Choose two)
A. Execute XOG writes.
B. Filter on instances or object code.
C. Feed portlets with the required data.
D. Fetch data from multiple tables and offer it as a Web Service.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 If the output file of a XOG write shows an updated record, what does it mean?
A. The object or instance did not exist in the database.
B. The object or instance was deleted from the database.
C. The object or instance already existed in the database.
D. The object or instance did not have a unique ID in the database.
Answer: C

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A. List Filter View
B. Properties View
C. List Column View
D. Edit Layouts View
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CAT-140
Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Professional Exam)
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NO.1 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature applies to application roles?
A. They are limited to a single directory or directory type.
B. They define which resources, or group of resources, an application can access.
C. They are a logical representation of a resource and how CA SiteMinder protects it.
D. They define a set of users who have access to an application resource or a group of application
resources.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
feature can you implement.?
A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-240
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam)
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NO.1 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.2 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.3 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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