2013年11月2日星期六

HP certification HP0-D21 exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: HP0-D21
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP0-D21 HP Matrix Operating Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What is a requirement when performing a bare-metal deployment using Insight Control for
Microsoft Systems Center?
A. Insight Contract server deployment
B. Insight Control server migration
C. ProLiant Gen8 rack-mount server
D. ProLiant G7 server blade
Answer: A

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NO.2 What can you use to free up an HP Integrity license from HP Infrastructure Orchestration?
A. vslicense command
B. HP SIM License Manager
C. vseassist command
D. CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Toll
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which turnkey HP Converged Infrastructure solution meets the following requirements?
Automated deployment and protection of virtualized applications Choice of virtual and utility store
with multi-tenancy, automatic management, and thin provisioning Optimized server and desktop
virtualization Investment protection with a clear upgrade path to the cloud
A. VirtualSystem
B. CloudSystem
C. StorageSystem
D. AppSystem
Answer: A

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NO.4 You installed the Pro module of Insight Control System Center Virtual Machine Manager.
Which additional functionality does this provide?
A. VMware server management support
B. Automatic migration of virtual machines when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
C. Automatic migration of virtual connect profiles when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
D. Support for Agentless management of ProLiant Gen8 servers
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which capability does an HP CloudSystem Matrix solution provide?
A. Storage automation of HP arrays
B. Unified services management across private, hybrid and public cloud environments and
traditional IT
C. Infrastructure provisioning, monitoring, patching, and compliance management
D. Advanced database automatic with log files management
Answer: B

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NO.6 How do you launch CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Tool in TS mode?
A. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter the TS credentials specified in Readme file.
B. Launch the MatrixDGMUI.exe program by accessing the folder where you saved HP CloudSystem
Matrix Versioning Tool files.
C. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter T and S while pressing the Alt and Shift Keys.
D. Launch Matrix DTS.exe program.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which key infrastructure management challenges do HP Converged infrastructure solutions
solve? (Select two)
A. Inability of traditional IT to keep up with business demands
B. Need to shift IT expenditure from operations to innovations
C. Resistance to adopting service-oriented architectures
D. Show adoption of virtualization technologies
E. Aging workforces with outdated skills
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 You are using a central management server (CMS) as a DHCP server for a deployment network
and as a DNS server for a management network and to forward unknown requests to the ISP DNS
server. What is a requirement for this CMS?
A. It must have a static IP on the management network
B. It must have a dynamic IP on the deployment network
C. It must bind to the deployment network
D. A must bind DNS to the ISP network
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S34
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Rack and Tower Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 You are planning to install an HP DL380 Gen8 server at a customer site. The customer wants to
use the HP Agentless management functionality. Which statement is correct when implementing
this management solution?
A. Pre-failure alerts can be configured for memory and drives
B. Redundancy status alerts can be configured for the CPU and the Smart Array controller
C. Redundancy status alerts can be configured for fans and the Smart Array controller
D. Pre-failure alerts can be configured for the CPU and the Smart Array controller
Answer: A

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NO.2 After configuring the bare metal HP Agentless Management, the customer notices that not all
system information is display. In addition, to system information displayed with the bare metal
method, which information can be collected when running HP Agentless Management. (Choose
Two)
A. Storage firmware
B. Network firmware
C. Power an cooling information
D. Processor data
E. Memory information
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Witch feature provides a customer alert to prevent a counterfiet hard drive from getting
installed in
an HP Proliant Gen8 server?
A. Drive error log NVRAM
B. Smart carrier authentication
C. Enhanced display
D. Smart array advanced pack
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are installing HP insight Control for Microsoft system Center on a customer site. You want
to
be able to use System Center Configuration Manager to install HP ProLiant drivers and firmwares
using a rules based model. Which component should be installed?
A. HP Proliant Pro Management Kit
B. HP Proliant Update Catalog
C. HP Proliant OS deployment Toolkit
D. HP Proliant Agent less Management Kit
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to build an HPC cluster and needs the highest performance and bandwidth.
What should he used?
A. Flex 10
B. 10 GB Ethernet
C. Flex Fabric
D. FDR InfiniBand
Answer: D

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NO.6 In HP Systems Insight Manager version 7 and beyond, which new tools can be used for
baselining? (Select two)
A. Track software and firmware versions
B. Manage software and firmware baselines
C. Manage hardware and software versions
D. Track hardware and software baselines
E. Track driver and firmware baselines
Answer: A,B

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2013年11月1日星期五

Oracle 1Z0-884 the latest certification exam training materials

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Exam Code: 1Z0-884
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Cluster 3.2 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 243 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 A patch has been released for a recently discovered security issue. The cluster administrator has
downloaded the patch and the README shows that it is a rebooting node patch that must be installed in
single-user mode.
What steps should be followed to apply this patch with the minimum amount of downtime for the service.
A. On each node in turn run the commands:
clnode evacuate -
n
shutdown -gO -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
B. On one node run the following commands:
clrg status
clrg offline
+
On each node in turn run the commands:
shutdown -g0 -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
When all nodes are patched run the following commands from one node:
clrg online
+
clrg status
C. Connect to all nodes using the cluster console and apply the patch simultaneously.
Reboot each node in turn.
D. On one node run the commands:
clrg status
cluster shutdown -g0
y
Reboot each node outside cluster.
boot -sx
Apply the patch on each node and reboot back into cluster.
boot
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have a two-node cluster configured. Node one is out of the cluster. You make changes to node two
(add resource groups and disk device groups). You now shut down node two and try to boot node one,
which fails due to amnesia prevention.
Which two keep node one from starting the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. scsi-2 reservations
B. Persistent reservations on the quorum device.
C. Nothing will keep node one from starting the cluster.
D. Node one's key has been previously preempted from the quorum device.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which statement is incorrect regarding the in.mpathd daemon?
A. IPMP uses ping to contact any router listed in the routing table.
B. If no router exists, IPMP submits a ping to the all-hosts multicast address.
C. If static host routes are available, these hosts will be contacted using ping.
D. You can configure link state monitoring on Solaris 9.
Answer: D

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NO.4 There are various ways to interact with Sun Cluster 3.2 to do daily administration.
Which method is prohibited?
A. using the clsetup command
B. editing the ccr
C. using Sun Cluster Manager
D. using standard cluster commands
Answer: B

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NO.5 You need to remove the Veritas Volume Manager volume named nfsvol in the nfsdg disk group which
is mounted on /nfs.
Which set of commands are used to perform this procedure?
A. umount /nfs; cldg remove nfsdg -r volume nfsvol; scconf sync nfsdg
B. umount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsdg
C. unmount -g nfsdg all; vxassist -g nfsdg remove all; cldg sync nfsvol
D. unmount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsvol
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two components are part of the Sun Cluster 3.2 software stack? (Choose two.)
A. operating system
B. Sun Cluster 3.2 agents
C. Sun Cluster 3.2 framework
D. volume management software
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which commands would be used to define a third private network using switches for a two-node
cluster?
A. clintr add-privnet -s switch3 node1:bge2,node2:bge2
B. clintr add node1:bge2
C. clintr add node1:bge2
D. clintr add -s switch3 node1:bge2 node2:bge2
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two types of communication can occur on the private interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. cluster heartbeats
B. application data transfer
C. vxconfigd communication
D. Solaris Volume Manager communication
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What is the complete list of acceptable Veritas volumes to hold your Sun Cluster 3.2 application data
on arrays of JBOD disks?
A. mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
B. simple mirrors, mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
C. concatenated subdisks, striped subsets, simple mirrors
D. striped mirrors, striped subdisks, concatenated subdisks, concatenated mirrors
Answer: B

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NO.10 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, the mountpoints default to
"/poolname/fsname". You can change the mountpoint name to whatever you want. You want to change
the mountpoint for the filesystem myfs1 in the pool devpool to /oradb.
Which command do you use?
A. zset mount=/oradb devpool/myfs1
B. zpool setmount=/oradb poolname/fsname
C. zfs /oradb set mountpoint devpool/all
D. zfs set mountpoint=/oradb devpool/myfs1
Answer: D

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NO.11 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, how do you specify the file system
mountpoint?
A. ZFS does not use mountpoints.
B. You must define mountpoints in the /etc/vfstab file first.
C. ZFS mountpoints default to /poolname/fsname, but you can change them to whatever you want using
the zfs command
D. Sun Cluster chooses the name of the file system mountpoints for ZFS.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A system administrator has received the Java ES distribution as a two-CD set, and wishes to configure
an NFS server to use as an install server for Sun Cluster 3.2.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Mount and share each CD from a separate server.
B. This is NOT possible, only the DVD distribution can be used in this case.
C. Create a working directory, share it using NFS, and combine the contents of both CDs into it using the
cpio command.
D. Mount the first CD and share it using NFS. When prompted by the installer, unshare and unmount the
CD, and repeat the process with the second CD.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You need to have two failover IP addresses on separate subnets both fail over along with an
application. How do you create your IP address resources?
A. You can create a single LogicalHostname resource respresenting both IP addresses.
B. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in the same resource group
as the application resource.
C. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in two separate resource
groups. A resource group can only contain one LogicalHostname resource.
D. You must create a SharedAddress resource. Only a SharedAddress resource can refer to multiple IP
addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer needs to do some maintenance to an application resource in their NFS resource group.
They want to have NFS resources active, but want to be sure that if anything goes wrong during the
operation, the NFS service is NOT restarted or the resource group switched.
How can this be accomplished ?
A. The customer can suspend the resource group.
B. The customer can place the resource group into a quiescent state.
C. The customer can place the resource group offline and then enable only the required
resources.
D. The customer can keep the resource group online and then disable monitoring for all the resources.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which is applicable to the Cluster Configuration Repository (CCR)?
A. The CCR is only accessed by the cluster software at boot time.
B. The CCR contains information that is critical to the operation of the cluster.
C. The CCR should be configured on shared storage so that all nodes can access it
D. To ensure consistency between the cluster nodes the CCR should be manually copied to all nodes on
a regular basis.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which are three reasons to disable automatic quorum device configuration in a two-node cluster?
(Choose three.)
A. You have a dual ported disk or LUN that is not capable of being a quorum device.
B. You want to use a second internal drive for your quorum device.
C. You want to use the quorum server as the quorum device.
D. You want to use a NAS device as a quorum device.
E. You want to use your boot device as your quorum device.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Solaris 10 allows resource allocation to users by assigning them projects. Consider having to
automatically assign a project to an Oracle user, to start your HA-Oracle database.
Which two options would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use the newtask command
B. Assign a project to the user using only the /etc/project file.
C. Assign a project to the user using both the /etc/project and the /etc/user_attr file.
D. Use the Resource_project_name property to pass the project to be used when starting Oracle.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which two Veritas Volume Manager packages need to be installed on all nodes connected to the
shared storage? (Choose two.)
A. VRTSjre
B. VRTSvlic
C. VRTSvxvm
D. VRTSobgui
E. VRTSvxman
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Occasionally you may need to rebuild your cluster. If you rebuilt a cluster named "dev" without
removing the old quorum server information, you may want to clean up the old quorum server information
manually.
Which command would you use to remove the old quorum server information after using the command
clqs show to obtain the cluster name and ID?
(--- Cluster dev (id 0x448DE82F) Registrations ---)
A. clclust remove -F quorum-serv-v
B. clqs clear -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
C. scquorum -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
D. Reboot the quorum server
Answer: B

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NO.20 You want to create a role that contains only the authorizations Solaris.cluster.modify and
Solaris.cluster.admin. As you then decide which users should be able to successfully access every cluster
command, you can just assign these users to the role and give them the role password.
These users will never need to have the root password, but they will be able to execute every cluster
command.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This scheme will work for both cluster commands and Sun Cluster Manager.
B. There are still some cluster-related activities, such as modifying the /etc/vfstab file, that the user might
NOT be able to do.
C. The users who switch to the role will still NOT have Solaris.cluster.read authorization, so they will not
be able to view cluster status and configuration.
D. This scheme will work as the users try to access command line commands, but it will NOT work if the
users execute operations through Sun Cluster Manager.
Answer: A,B

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NO.21 You have a three-node cluster and have put one node into maintenance mode.
What do you need to do to give the node its vote back and bring it back into the cluster?
A. Re-install the node to fix the maintenance mode.
B. Reboot the node, the maintenance mode will reset automatically.
C. Remove the node from the cluster, then add it back into the cluster.
D. Add another quorum disk device before booting the node back into the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.22 A two-node Solaris Volume Manager campus cluster has been installed at sites A and B. A preferred site
A can be configured so that the cluster survives the loss of site B without requiring manual intervention.
Which is the correct procedure to create a preferred site A ?
A. Put the quorum device at site A and configure the majority of the diskset metadb replicas on the disks
located at site A.
B. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra metadb to the disks in the diskset at both sites A and
B.
C. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra local metadb to the root disk on the server located at
site A.
D. You cannot do this unless you configure a third site with the quorum device and with
the diskset configured across all three sites, so that the loss of one site will always ensure that two out of
the three metadbs are present.
Answer: A

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NO.23 What is the minimum number of nodes required to make a highly available cluster?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
Answer: B

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NO.24 You run cldg status to view the status of your device group. What must be true about the node that is
listed as the Primary.?
A. It is the preferred node for the device group.
B. It is the current primary node for the device group, not necessarily the preferred node.
C. A global file system configured on a volume of the device group can only be accessed from that node.
D. The device group can run only on that node. If that node fails, the device group will become
unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.25 You just created a Solaris Volume Manager diskset from the shared storage containing two disks, one
from each of two arrays. You added two connected nodes as mediators for the diskset.
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must manually create a partition on the diskset disks to hold a metadb replica.
B. The metainit commands that you use to build volumes on the disks will fail unless you mirror across
arrays.
C. The mediators allow you to lose a disk and subsequently maintain high availability if a node fails.
D. If you lose one of the disks and then lose the node that is primary for the diskset, the entire cluster will
lose access to the diskset.
E. The Solaris Volume Manager commands that added disks to the diskset automatically created a single
metadb replica on each disk.
Answer: C,E

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NO.26 A customer has a resource group called nfs-rg with a SUNW.nfs resource called nfs-rs. They want to
check how the Failover_mode property has been set.
Which is the correct command used to accomplish this task ?
A. clrg status
B. clrs show -g nfs-rg
C. clrs show -v nfs-rs
D. clrs list -v nfs-rs
Answer: C

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NO.27 The cluster administrator is running SunCluster 3.2 on x86 machines running Solaris 10 update 3, and
needs to boot one of the x86 machines into non-cluster mode.
To which menu item does the cluster administrator add -x' using the GRUB editor?
A. kernel /platform/i86pc/multiboot
B. kernel /platform/i86pc/suserboot
C. Solaris 10 11/06 s10x_u3wos_08 X86
D. module /platform/i86pc/boot_archive
Answer: A

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NO.28 The SUNW.HAStoragePlus resource manages different types of storage. In which case is it mandatory
to configure HAStoragePlus?
A. to manage global raw devices
B. to manage global file systems
C. to manage failover file systems
D. to manage global file system devices with an Oracle RAC configuration
Answer: C

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NO.29 When using ZFS to maintain your cluster file systems, what other software volume management
application do you need to manage the device groups?
A. You do not need any other volume manager software.
B. SVM is needed to manage your disksets.
C. VxVM is needed to manage your disk groups.
D. Veritas CVM is needed to manage the shared disk groups.
Answer: A

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NO.30 You have two adapters that you want to configure in the same IPMP group. Neither of them are yet
configured into any IPMP group. The cluster nodes are already configured.
Which tasks must you perform to configure the group?
A. You need to rerun the scinstall utility and let it create your IPMP groups for you.
B. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx files for each adapter, using the group option to place
them in the same group.
C. You need to use the clinterconnect (clintr) command and specify the adapters for which you want to
create IPMP groups.
D. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx file for only one adapter. In that file, you list all the
adapters that will be in the same group.
Answer: B

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NO.1 How can you be sure to access a specific data source in a default Oracle BI Applications installation for
users working from a client machine? Assume that log level 2 has been enabled.
A. With log level 2 or higer enabled in the NqsConfig. ini, you can check the SQL from the query log of a
specific Answers request. Read the SQL and check the connection pool(s) used and the data source
name(s).
B. The only data source in a standard BI Applications installation is the data warehouse. This source is
defined in DAC in the Setup View under Physical Data Surces. You can alx\so check the (native)
Connection credentials.
C. Sources can range from data wareshouse to OLTP systems. Their connections are named in
connection pools in the BI reposity. Using these connection names you can check the (native) connection
credentials.
D. All physical connections are defined in Informatica Powercenter Repository Manager. Log in and check
all connection credentials.
E. Users can log in to Aswers, the BI repository, DAC or Informatica to check connection credentials and
data source names.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is true regarding the location of Informatica PowerCenter client tools installation?
A. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the transactional database.
B. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC Server.
C. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the OBAW database.
D. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC client.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the default location where paramether files are created by DAC?
A. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\server\parameters
B. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\parameters
C. $DAC_HOME\ parameters
D. $DAC_HOME\ server\infa_shared\BWParam
Answer: B

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NO.4 A large insurance company ABC-Safe uses PeopleSoft and Hyperion Planning & Budgeting for
Financial Analytics and a third-party software package for HR Compensatio. ABC-Safe wants to have a
consolidated picture of its finances and compensation packages. What would you advise?
A. Immediately enhance the existing Oracle BI Financial Application with HR analytics.
B. Perform a fit-gap analysis on the usability of the ETL for HR analytics and cross functionality with
Financial Applications and present a business case for extending the Oracle BI Applications environment
with Oracle BI HR analytics or enhance the existing BI applications environment with HR data by building
the ETL, enhance the BI repository, Reports& Dashboards, security and other needed elements.
C. Oracle BI applications cannot be enhanced by data from third-party software packages.
D. Offer implementing Oracle BI HR Analytics, inckuding a calculation for reusing prebuilt ETL using the
Universal connector.
E. Offer implementing Oracle BI Standard Edition One, including a Compensation warehouse setup in
Warehouse Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A new source is available containing several big tables with over 2 million rows of data. Some of this
data is needs in Oracle BI analysis, combind with existing data sources. What are your options to enable
this combined analysis?
A. Analyze the needed data and needed granularity. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and pertition navigation. Enable cross analysis in the logical layer. Use
simple requests and analyze the request performance on the new data.
B. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
C. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in
the logical layer.
D. Analyze the needed data and needed granularily. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
E. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 2 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Apply changes in DAC to read the new source data have execution plans load the needed
data into the data warehouse. Model the BI repositorty with the new data warehouse objects and enable
aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
F. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 1 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects and enable aggregate
navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which condition results in a source record being neglected during incremental load?
A. INTIAL_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
B. LAST_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
C. LAST_UPDATE+DATE >= INITIAL_EXTRACT_DATE
D. LAST_UPDATE_DATE <= LAST_ EXTRACT_DATE
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three calendar types are supported by BI Applications 7.9.6 rlease?
A. Enterprise
B. 13 Period, 4-4-5
C. Fiscal and Gregorian
D. 15 Period
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.8 The webcat structure, along with various other presentation parameters are stored in: .?
A. DBFeatures. ini
B. Instanceconfig. xml
C. NQSConfig. ini
D. Repository File (.rpd)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three variable tu\ype does the BI Applications data model support for specifying currencies?
A. Document
B. Local
C. Global
D. Override
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.10 The universal adpter in Informatica, is used to load data from what two sources?
A. EBS
B. JD Edwards
C. Legacy OLTP Systems
D. Non Oracle Sources
Answer: A,C

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
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Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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NO.11 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.13 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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NO.16 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.18 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-804
Exam Name: Oracle (Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 To provide meaningful output for:
System.out.print( new Item ()):
A method with which signature should be added to the Item class?
A. public String asString()
B. public Object asString()
C. public Item asString()
D. public String toString()
E. public object toString()
F. public Item toString()
Answer: D

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NO.2 Give:
Class Employee {
public int checkEmail() {/* . . . */}
public void sendEmail (String email) {/* . . . */}
public Boolean validDateEmail(){/* . . . */}
public void printLetter (String letter) {/* . . . */}
}
Which is correct?
A. Employee takes advantage of composition.
B. Employee "has-an" Email.
C. Employee "is-a" LetterPrinter.
D. Employee has low cohesion.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the fragment:
public class CustomerApplication {
public static void main (String args[]) {
CustomerDAO custDao= new CustomerDAOMemoryImpl(); // Line 3
// ­ o t he r m e t hod
}
}
Which two valid alternatives to line 3 would decouple this application from a specific
implementation of CustomerDAO?
A. CustomerDAO custDao = CustomerDAO();
B. CustomerDAO custDao = (CustomerDAO) new Object ();
C. CustomerDAO custDao = CustomerDAO.getInstance();
D. CustomerDAO custDao = (CustomerDAO) new CustomerDAOmemoryImp1();
E. CustomerDAO custDao = customerDAOFactory.getInstance();
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Given:
public class DoubleThread {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread() {
public void run() {
System.out.print("Greeting");
}
};
Thread t2 = new Thread(t1); // Line 9
t2.run();
}
}
Which two are true?
A. A runtime exception is thrown on line 9.
B. No output is produced.
C. Greeting is printed once.
D. Greeting is printed twice.
E. No new threads of execution are started within the main method.
F. One new thread of execution is started within the main method.
G. Two new threads of execution are started within the main method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Given the code fragment:
DataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new Dateformat object that displays the default date format for the UK
Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe {
synchronized void doIt();
}
B. abstract class ThreadSafe {
synchronized abstract void doIt();
}
C. class ThreadSafe {
synchronized static void soIt () {}
}
D. enum ThreadSafe {
ONE, TWO, Three;
Synchronized final void doIt () {}
}
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given:
import java.io.IOException;
import java.io.file.Path;
import java.io.file.Paths;
public class Path12 {
public static void main(String s[]) throws IOException {
Path path = Paths.get("\\sales\\quarter\\..\\qtrlreport.txt");
path.relativize(Paths.get("\\sales\\annualreport.txt"));
if(path.endsWith("annualreport.txt")) {
System.out.println(true);
} else {
System.out.println(false);
}
System.out.println(path);
}
}
What is the result?
A. false
\sales\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
B. false
\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
C. true
. . \ . . \ . . \ annualreport.txt
D. true
\ . . \ . . \annualreport.txt
Answer: A

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NO.8 Given the code fragment:
public class App {
public static void main (String [] args){
Path path = Paths.get("C:\\education\\institute\\student\\report.txt");
System.out.println("get.Name(0): %s", path.getName(0));
System.out.println ("subpath(0, 2): %s", path.subpath (0, 2));}
}
What is the result?
A. getName (0): C:\
subpath (0, 2): C:\education\report.txt
B. getName(0): C:\
subpth(0, 2): C:\education
C. getName(0): education
subpath (0, 2): education\institute
D. getName(0): education
subpath(0, 2): education\institute\student
E. getName(0): report.txt
subpath(0, 2): insritute\student
Answer: C

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Explanation: Example:
Path path = Paths.get("C:\\home\\joe\\foo");
getName(0)
-> home
subpath(0,2)
Reference: The Java Tutorial, Path Operations

NO.9 Given this error message when running your application:
Exception in thread "main" java.util.MissingResourceException: Can't find bundle for base name
MessageBundle, locale
And given that the MessageBundle.properties file has been created, exists on your disk, and is
properly formatted.
What is the cause of the error message?
A. The file is not in the environment path.
B. The file is not in the classpath.
C. The file is not in the javapath.
D. You cannot use a file to store a ResourceBundle.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which method would you supply to a class implementing the Callable interface?
A. callable ()
B. executable ()
C. call ()
D. run ()
E. start ()
Answer: C

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NO.11 Given:
class Deeper {
public Number getDepth() {
return 10;
}
}
Which two classes correctly override the getDepth method?
A. public class deep extends Deeper {
protected integer getDepth(){
return 5;
}
}
B. public class deep extends Deeper {
public double getDepth() {
return"5";
}
}
C. public class deep extends Deeper {
public String getDepth () {
}
}
D. public class deep extends Deeper {
public Long getDepth (int d) {
return 5L;
}
}
E. public class deep extends Deeper {
public short getDepth () {
return 5;
}
}
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Sam has designed an application. It segregates tasks that are critical and executed frequently
from tasks that are non critical and executed less frequently. He has prioritized these tasks based
on their criticality and frequency of execution. After close scrutiny, he finds that the tasks designed
to be non critical are rarely getting executed.
From what kind of problem is the application suffering?
A. race condition
B. starvation
C. deadlock
D. livelock
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which code fragment demonstrates the proper way to handle JDBC resources?
A. Try {
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
B. Try {statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
C. Try {
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
D. Try {ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two codes correctly represent a standard language locale code?
A. ES
B. FR
C. U8
D. Es
E. fr
F. u8
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Given the code fragment:
public class DisplaValues {
public void printNums (int [] nums){
for (int number: nums) {
System.err.println(number);
}
}
}
Assume the method printNums is passed a valid array containing data. Why is this method not
producing output on the console?
A. There is a compilation error.
B. There is a runtime exception.
C. The variable number is not initialized.
D. Standard error is mapped to another destination.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Given:
import java.util.*;
public class AccessTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
Thread t2 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
t1.start(); t2.start; // line1
}
}
class WorkPool {
static ArrayList<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>(); // line2
public static void addItem() { // line3
list.add(1); // Line4
}
}
class WorkerThread implements Runnable {
static Object bar = new Object ();
public void run() { //line5
for (int i=0; i<5000;i++) WorkPool.addItem(); // line6
}
}
Which of the four are valid modifications to synchronize access to the valid list between threads t1
and t2?
A. Replace line 1 with:
Synchronized (t2) (t1.start();) synchronized(t1) (t2.start();)
B. Replace Line 2 with:
static CopyWriteArrayList<Integer> list = new CopyWriteArrayList<>();
C. Replace line 3 with:
synchronized public static void addItem () {
D. Replace line 4 with:
synchronized (list) (list.add(1);)
E. Replace line 5 with:
Synchronized public void run () {
F. replace line 6 with:
Synchronized (this) {for (in i = 0, i<5000, i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
G. Replace line 6 with:
synchronized (bar) {for (int i= 0; i<5000; i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
Answer: F

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NO.17 Given the existing destination file, a source file only 1000 bytes long, and the code fragment:
public void process (String source, String destination) {
try (InputStream fis = new FileInputStream(source);
OutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(destination)
) {
byte [] buff = new byte[2014];
int i;
while ((i = fis.read(buff)) != -1) {
fos.write(buff,0,i); // line ***
}
} catch (IOException e) {
System.out.println(e.getClass());
}
}
What is the result?
A. Overrides the content of the destination file with the source file content
B. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file after a new line
C. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file without a break in the flow
D. Throws a runtime exception at line***
Answer: A

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NO.18 ITEM Table
* ID, INTEGER: PK
* DESCRIP, VARCHAR(100)
* PRICE, REAL
* QUALITY, INTEGER
And given the code fragment (assuming that the SQL query is valid):
try {
String query = "SELECT * FROM Item WHERE ID=110";
Statement stmt = conn.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(query);
while (rs.next ()) {
System.out.println("ID: " + rs.getInt("Id"));
System.out.println("Description: " + rs.getString("Descrip"));
System.out.println("Price: " + rs.getDouble("Price"));
System.out.println("Quantity: " + rs.getInt("Quantity"));
}
} catch (SQLException se) {
System.out.println("Error");
}
What is the result of compiling and executing this code?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime
B. Compile fails
C. The code prints Error
D. The code prints information about Item 110
Answer: A

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NO.19 Given the incomplete pseudo-code for a fork/join framework application:
submit(Data) {
if(Data.size < SMALL_ENOUGH) {
_________________(Data); // line x
}
else {
List<Data> x = _________________(Data); // line Y
for(Data d: x
______________(d); // line z
}
}
And given the missing methods:
process, submit, and splitInHalf
Which three insertions properly complete the pseudo-code?
A. Insert submit at line X.
B. Insert splitInHalf at line X.
C. Insert process at line X.
D. Insert process at line Y.
E. Insert splitInHalf at line Y.
F. Insert process at line Z.
G. Insert submit at line Z.
Answer: C,E,G

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NO.20 Given a language code of fr and a country code of FR, which file name represents a resource
bundle file name that is not the default?
A. MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
B. MessageBundle_fr_FR.profile
C. MessageBundle_fr_FR.xinl
D. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Java
E. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Locale
Answer: A

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