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Exam Code: 190-981
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Building the Infrastructure)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What type of information is stored in an .NSD file?
A.Current server status
B.Notes storage directories
C.Information regarding a system crash
D.HTTP access information for the server
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are configuring Directory Assistance to utilize replicas of databases across numerous servers.
However, you wish for the first lookup to be done locally for a replica. What should be placed in the Server
Name field of the Directory Assistance document?
A.*
B.Local
C.Notes
D.Primary
Answer: A

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NO.3 What action does a stop trigger perform?
A.Shuts down a task if a threshhold is reached.
B.Notifies an administrator if an event happens.
C.Pauses the Domino console when a particular event occurs.
D.Automatically restarts the server according to predefined criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Cluster Database Directory Manager creates which of the following databases?
A.CLDBDIR.NSF
B.CLUSTERDB.NSF
C.CLUDIRMGR.NSF
D.CLUDIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Domino Console connects to the Controller over what default port?
A.80
B.1352
C.1533
D.2055
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are the default names for the DB2 instance, database and schema?
A.DB2, Domino, Domino
B.NSF, Domino, DomDB2
C.Domino, NSFDB2, NDDB2
D.SYSCTR, Domino, DB2AccServ
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following happens when the purge interval is shorter than the replication interval?
A.The view indexes may not refresh after a replication.
B.The database will force an unscheduled replication to occur.
C.Documents deleted from a replica of the database can reappear.
D.Users may not see the newest documents when they open a database
Answer: D

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NO.8 Users in your organization utilize Lotus Traveler for their mobile devices. They are successfully able to
search for user names and telephone numbers. What is the default amount of returned results in their
searches?
A.10
B.25
C.50
D.100
Answer: B

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NO.9 Roxana issued the command SET SECURE NOONE at the server console. What did this
accomplish?
A.Locked the web console to browser users
B.Prevented anyone from accessing the server console
C.Prevented anyone other than himself from using the console
D.Forced anyone using the console to type in the password NOONE to have access to the console
Answer: D

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NO.10 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A.Enforce ECLs
B.Create File Protection documents
C.Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D.Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

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NO.11 Marilyn wants to view the expired certificates in the Certification Revocation List (CRL). In which one
of the following would Marilyn find this information?
A.This information cannot be viewed.
B.In the CRL document in the Domino Directory.
C.In the Certifier document in the Domino Directory.
D.In the Server document in the Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When an S/MIME signed message has a disclaimer added by the server and is received by a Notes
user, which of the following is the result?
A.The signature cannot be verified
B.The signature is stripped from the message
C.The message cannot be read by the recipient
D.The message cannot be transmitted and is returned to the user
Answer: A

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NO.13 A server was given Editor access to an application. Which one of the following describes how this
server fits into the design distribution process for this application?
A.It can send design changes only.
B.It can receive design changes only.
C.It can both send and receive design changes.
D.It can neither send nor receive design changes.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your company has been utilizing the ID vault and regularly marking IDs as inactive when a user
leaves the company. In this instance, a user has returned to the company. Which of the following steps
represent the best option for this returning user?
A.Choose to restore the id in the vault as active again
B.When registering the user, add the new id to the vault
C.Have the user email their id file back to the vault to reactivate
D.Have the user authenticate via the web interface to activate their old id file
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which one of the following server console commands should be utilized to clear the database cache?
A.DBCache Flush
B.DBCache Clear
C.Database Flush
D.Database Clear Cache
Answer: A

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NO.16 Database1.nsf needs to replicate between two servers.
ServerX should only be able to add and modify information in ServerZ's replica copy of Database1.nsf.
ServerZ should be able to pull new and modified information from ServerX's replica copy of
Database1.nsf, but not be able to write new or modified information to ServerX's copy.
Which one of the following represents the access levels each server should have?
A.ServerX should have Author access to Database1.nsf on ServerZ, and ServerZ should have Reader
access to Database1.nsf on ServerX
B.ServerX should have Manager access to Database1.nsf on ServerZ, and ServerZ should have Reader
access to Database1.nsf on ServerX
C.ServerX should have Editor access to Database1.nsf on ServerZ, and ServerZ should have Reader
access to Database1.nsf on ServerX
D.ServerX should have Editor access to Database1.nsf on ServerB, and ServerZ should have Depositor
access to DAtabase1.nsf on ServerX
Answer: C

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NO.17 Kyle, the Domino administrator, needs to connect to the Domino Controller through a firewall. What
program must be configured properly for this functionality?
A.Binder service
B.Service binder
C.Bind controller
D.Controller binder
Answer: B

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NO.18 In which of the following scenarios would the Notes client push an updated copy of their user id file to
the server ID vault?
A.When the user changes home servers
B.When the user adds an Internet certificate
C.When the user changes the logoff timeout on their Notes client
D.When the user accepts a cross certificate to another Notes domain
Answer: B

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NO.19 Domino Domain Monitoring (DDM) enhanced events contains which of the following?
A.Specific target information only
B.Events generated by an event probe only
C.Events generated by an event generator only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which one of the following statements regarding the Certificate Authority (CA) is true?
A.The CA issues Lotus Notes certificates only.
B.The CA issues Internet certificates only.
C.Access to the certifier ID must be granted.
D.The CA issues both Lotus Notes and Internet certificates.
Answer: D

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NO.21 The previous internal Domino time is saved in Last_Domino_Time when the Domino server shuts down,
when the server is successfully restarted and when the OS time refreshes the internal Domino time.
Which of the following prevents Domino from starting if the time change has moved beyond a preset
range?
A.Rematch_OS_Time
B.Reset_Actual_Time
C.Restart_Time_Action
D.Restart_Time_Interval
Answer: D

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NO.22 When calculating the size of a mail file to determine whether it conforms to configured mail quota or
warning threshold limits, Domino treats attachments stored using the Domino Attachment and Object
Service as which of the following?
A.As though each user does not have a quota
B.As though each user owned the entirety of the attachment file
C.As though each user owns only the size of the message without the attachment
D.as though each user cannot exceed warning threshold limits for their mailfile
Answer: B

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NO.23 Karen, the Domino administrator, is configuring client authentication through Directory Assistance. She
wishes to restrict lookups to a specific directory to ONLY users in the Europe/WXYZ hierarchy. Which of
the following represents the proper trusted rule to be created in Directory Assistance?
A./ / / /WXYZ/*
B./ / /Europe/WXYZ/*
C./ / */Europe/WXYZ/*
D.*/*/*/Europe/WXYZ/*
Answer: B

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NO.24 ServerA/Singapore/Acme is being accessed by both Web and Notes clients:
1. Web clients are in the Web Users group.
2. Notes clients are in the Corporate Users group.
Which one of the following should Hans, a Domino administrator, do to ensure that only Web users
access ServerA/Singapore/Acme?
A.Recertify ServerA/Singapore/Acme using a different OU certifier.
B.Change the Access server field in the Server document to remove Corporate Users.
C.Remove all Person documents from the Domino Directory on ServerA/Singapore/Acme.
D.Change the Not access server field in the Server document to remove Corporate Users.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Brie left the Create New Replicas field blank on a server document. Who can create new replica
databases on that server?
A.No one
B.Administrators
C.LocalDomainServers
D.Everyone in the domain
Answer: A

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NO.26 Event handlers contain numerous notification methods. Which of the following is NOT a supported
notification method?
A.Pager
B.Broadcast
C.Outbound phone call
D.Log to Windows NT Event Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.27 Domino Domain Monitoring (DDM) contains how many classes of event information?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which one of the following database elements is not updated when the DESIGN task is run?
A.Forms
B.Views
C.Roles
D.Agents
Answer: C

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NO.29 William wishes to migrate his company's Notes certifier to the new Certificate Authority process. He
has chosen to encrypt the certifier id with a lock id. What Domino server console command must be
issued next?
A.load unlock ca
B.load ca unlock
C.tell ca activate
D.tell ca unlock
Answer: D

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NO.30 Marcus, the Domino administrator, wishes to modify the reverse path setting on forwarded messages
sent by user mail rules. Which of the following settings would allow the message to possibly bypass spam
filters while not providing a valid email address?
A.Set reverse-path to null
B.Preserve existing value
C.Use recipient Internet address
D.Construct nondeliverable return address
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-521
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.15 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.17 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.19 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.21 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.22 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.23 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.24 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.28 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.29 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.30 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. Through the Firewall policy
B. From the Internet
C. Through all interfaces
D. Through internal interfaces
Answer: B

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NO.3 What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN?
A. Mesh VPN Community
B. Any VPN Community
C. Remote Access VPN Community
D. Star VPN Community
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
Answer: B

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NO.5 VPN-1 NGX includes a resource mechanism for working with the Common Internet File
System (CIFS). However, this service only provides a limited level of actions for CIFS security. Which
of the following services is NOT provided by a CIFS resource?
A. Log access shares
B. Block Remote Registry Access
C. Log mapped shares
D. Allow MS print shares
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

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NO.7 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: B

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NO.11 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols,
passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you
select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.12 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the
gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
A. Only Group in Branch
B. Only Sub Tree
C. OU Auth and select Group Name
D. All Account-Unit's Users
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
B. MEP VPN's are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Public keys and digital certificates provide which of the following? Select three.
A. Non repudiation
B. Data integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CAT-040
Exam Name: CA (CA eHealth r6 Administrator Exam )
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose
four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.2 In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-340
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NO.1 During Exchange Agent configuration, which step do you perform?
A. Install an Exchange server remote agent on the Provisioning Server.
B. Configure the CAM and CAFT Service to be started by the system account.
C. Configure inbound mappings to map Exchange events to CA IdentityMinder tasks.
D. Configure CAFTHOST to recognize the C++ Connector Server (CCS) and the CA IdentityMinder
clients.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which event context information object method returns the name of the person who
submitted the task that generated an event?
A. getOrgName()
B. getEventName()
C. getAdminName()
D. getPrimaryObjectName()
Answer: C

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NO.3 You need to import a large number of managed users to the CA Identity Minder User Store
simultaneously.Having explored the various options, the Bulk Loader method seems the best option.
However, which limitation do you need to be aware of before you begin?
A. It may use large amounts of memory.
B. It cannotbe mapped to a workflow process.
C. It does not support the execution of identity policies.
D. It bypasses audit and security mechanisms provided by the Task Server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When you configure the Report Server, which guideline should you follow?
A. Always restart the environment after you configure reporting.
B. Set all systems involved in reportingto the same time zone and time.
C. To avoid port conflicts with JBoss, change the default port numbers in the CRConfig.xml file.
D. Configure the connection with the Provisioning Server before you configure the connection with
the Snapshot Database.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When you export CA IdentityMinder environment settings, you generate a ZIP file containing
which files? (Choose three)
A. alias_environment.xml
B. alias_environment_roles.xml
C. alias_environment_users.xml
D. alias_environment_settings.xml
E. alias_environment_mappings.xml
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The
computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these
procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB
free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50
GB.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Review the image, and then answer the question below.
You have managed the Dock preferences to define where on the computer screen the Dock will appear
for these four accounts: Lab (a computer group), Science1 (a computer in the Lab computer group),
Teachers (a workgroup), and John (a member of the Teachers workgroup). When John logs in on the
Science1 computer, where on the computer screen does the Dock appear?
A. bottom of the screen
B. left side of the screen
C. right side of the screen
D. John will be prompted to choose whether his user preferences or the Teachers workgroup preferences
should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of his choice.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to create resources, such as rooms and
projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. Directory Access
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources,
on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these
fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount
option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount
configuration sheet?
A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which utility can you use to display the status of ticket-granting tickets on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Kerberos
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Keychain Access
E. Directory Utility
F. Certificate Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin?
A. Cache
B. Master
C. Pointer
D. Forward
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You configured the
authentication method as Any. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which
authentication methods, and in what order?
A. (1) Kerberos; (2) SSH
B. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos
C. (1) Kerberos; (2) Standard
D. (1) SSH; (2) Standard; (3) Kerberos
E. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos; (3) SSH
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which protocol does the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send messages?
A. IRC (Internet Relay Chat)
B. SMP (Symmetric Messaging Protocol)
C. AIMP (AOL Instant Messaging Protocol)
D. XMPP (Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A MacBook computer running Mac OS X v10.5 was formerly managed, but its managed preferences
have been disabled on the server. Still, the user is unable to change some preferences on the MacBook.
Which statement presents a valid method for restoring the users access to these preferences?
A. Delete the /Library/Managed Preferences/ folder.
B. Delete the MCX attributes from the user records in the NetInfo database.
C. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Services pane of Directory Utility.
D. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Accounts pane of System Preferences.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS
X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E

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NO.1 You want to restrict managed user Jim from using Safari in the local /Applications directory on a
managed computer to which he has access. Which of these are valid ways to accomplish this goal?
(Choose all that apply.)
A.Using the Get Info window, lock Safari on Jim's computer.
B.Using Workgroup Manager, disable Jim's ability to open applications on the local volume.
C.Using Workgroup Manager, remove Safari from the list of Jim's allowed applications.
D.Using the Get Info window for Safari, set the application's privileges to None for user Jim.
E.Using Workgroup Manager, set up Safari to require an administrator password for launching.
Correct:B C

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NO.2 What is one reason to prefer an AFP share point over an NFS share point for storing home
directories?
A.NFS volumes must be mounted manually.
B.AFP volumes are easier to search than NFS volumes.
C.AFP provides user-level authentication access security.
D.NFS share points do not support group-level Read & Write permissions.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which TWO statements are true of mobile user accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A.A mobile user account works on iBook and PowerBook computers only.
B.Account information is stored both in a shared domain and locally, on the user's computer.
C.You create a mobile user by selecting "Mobile User" in the Advanced pane of Workgroup Manager.
D.A mobile user has two home folders, a local folder and a network folder, both of which Mac OS X Server
v10.3 keeps synchronized, so they contain the same set of data.
E.If not connected to a network, a mobile user logs in to his computer using the local copy of the mobile
account information. When connected to the network, however, the operating system authenticates the
user using the account information stored on a shared domain.
Correct:B E

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NO.4 Which of these computers can start up from a NetBoot image hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.3?
(Choose all that apply.)
A.Power Macintosh G3 (233 MHz, beige model)
B.Power Macintosh G3 (Blue & White)
C.iMac G3 (Tray Loading)
D.iMac (Slot Loading)
E.Power Mac G4
F.Power Mac G5
G.Xserve
H.iBook
Correct:D E F G H

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NO.5 Which are valid methods for starting up a Mac OS X client computer from a NetBoot disk image?
(Choose all that apply.)
A.Hold down the N key when starting up the computer.
B.Hold down the Command-Option-P-R keys when starting up the computer.
C.Select a specific NetBoot disk image in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences.
D.Choose "Start from NetBoot Disk Image" from the Login Items pane of System Preferences.
E.Hold down the Shift key when starting up, and choose a NetBoot server from the Startup Manager
screen's pop-up menu.
Correct:A C

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NO.6 The NetBoot Filters feature in Mac OS X Server v10.3 lets you ________.
A.look up the IP address of a computer, based on its host name
B.deny NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
C.allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
D.allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their hardware address
Correct:D

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NO.7 What is the MAXIMUM number of computers you can import into a computer list?
A.3,000
B.2,000
C.700
D.99
E.10
Correct:B

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NO.8 Tim has a network user account on a Mac OS X Server v10.3 computer. The system
administrator has given Tim a disk quota of 100 MB. This quota applies only to files that are
owned by ________, and are located ________.
A.Tim; in Tim's home folder
B.any user; in Tim's home folder
C.Tim; on the partition where Tim's home folder resides
D.Tim; on the share point where Tim's home folder resides
Correct:C

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NO.9 You have defined managed preferences for the Guest Computers account in Workgroup
Manager. Those preferences apply to ________.
A.computers named on the Guest Computers list, only
B.any computer from which a user connects to the server with Guest access
C.any computer that is not a member of a named computer list on the server
D.computers that are members of computer lists that have Guest access to the server
Correct:C

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NO.10 You manage the Dock position for user Sarah so it appears on the left of her screen. You
manage the Dock position for the workgroup, Arts, of which Sarah is a member, so that the Dock
appears on the right side of members' screens. Where does the Dock appear when Sarah logs in
as a member of the Arts workgroup?
A.left side of the screen
B.right side of the screen
C.When there is a conflict between user and workgroup preferences, the default value of the preference
is used. The default Dock position is at the bottom of the screen.
D.If you are managing the Dock position for the computer list account in which the Arts workgroup is a
member, the Dock position will be the same as the one defined for the computer list. If you are not
managing the Dock position for the computer list, the Dock appears on the right.
Correct:A

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