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Exam Code: HP3-042
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 5200 Series Printers Service and Support)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What printer drivers are included on the inbox CD for the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer.? Select
THREE.
A. Linux
B. PCL 5e
C. PostScript 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 The HP LaserJet 5200L comes with which two of the following? Select TWO.
A. 500-sheet input tray
B. one open DIMM slot
C. duplex unit
D. hi-speed USB 2.0 port
Answer: B

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NO.3 When removing/replacing the assembly, for which internal assembly must you first remove the cartridge
door unit?
A. control panel assembly
B. laser/scanner assembly
C. face down delivery unit
D. cassette-paper pickup unit
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are customer self-repair parts? Select THREE.
A. tray 1 pickup roller
B. formatter
C. memory DIMMs
D. main fan duct
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 How many motors do HP LaserJet 5200 series printers contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E13
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 .According to the current HP roadmap, which HP servers are based on industry-standard
processors? (Select three.)
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP Integrity servers
C. HP ProLiant servers
D. HP AlphaServer systems
E. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which action is needed to solve the problem described below?
High costs due to multiple server locations and underutilized IT facilities.
A. control
B. continuity
C. compliance
D. collaboration
E. consolidation
Answer: D

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
During a BladeSystem sales process, you communicate the benefits of migrating to HP
BladeSystem architecture. Which benefits should you emphasize? (Select two.)
Answer: Blades require less infrastructure management.
Answer: Blades use less power for reduced cooling costs.
Answer: Blades support plug-and-play replacement for easy maintenance.
Answer: A blade deployment is less expensive than a traditional server deployment.
Answer: Pending

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NO.4 How can StorageWorks MSL tape libraries extend the benefits of tape? (Select two.)
A. lowering the initial cost for tape solutions
B. automating the process of backup and restore for one or more servers
C. increasing the capacity of data that can be backed up without intervention
D. reducing the number of tapes required for backup of same amount of data
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the dual-core Itanium 2 processor? (Select two.)
Answer: It supports more cores per processor than competing offerings.
Answer: It supports massively parallel processing for increased performance.
Answer: It provides increased multitasking performance while using less power.
Answer: It features dual-core spare architecture, which allows for online CPU spare.
Answer: Pending

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the new world of business technology? (Select two.)
Answer: IT is seen as separate from the business itself.
Answer: It reduces the cost of IT while improving business performance.
Answer: Technology does not support the business; it powers the business.
Answer: IT is focused on data processing and management information systems.
Answer: Pending

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
How does HP define IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: as a one-time-only project
Answer: by downsizing the number of systems in the data center

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Answer: as a process that affects only servers, storage, and databases *
Answer: using proven strategies for streamlining inefficient infrastructures

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Answer: Pending

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
A customer has excess IT hardware they believe has remaining market value. They may wish to
acquire new HP technology or apply any remaining market value proceeds to other HP products or
services. Which HP program might you consider? (Select two.)
Answer: HP Trade-In Program
Answer: HP Care Pack Services

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Answer: HP Managed Care Services

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Answer: HPFS Asset Recovery Services

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Answer: Pending

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
What is the primary reason that drives customers to implement IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: the need to increase IT staff

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Answer: the need to increase the entire supply chain

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Answer: the need to increase security and dependence on IT

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Answer: the need to control diverse environments while reducing IT costs

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Answer: Pending

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NO.10 CORRECT TEXT
HP works with many solution providers to integrate innovation into solutions. Which partner helps
ensure the latest in microprocessor technology?
Answer: AMD

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Answer: Lotus

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Answer: Citri

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Answer: Red Hat

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Answer: Microsoft

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Answer: Pending

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Exam Code: ST0-030
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.4 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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NO.6 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.15 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-050
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two default user accounts are created on an Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A. administrator
B. admin
C. root
D. user
E. guest
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined
requirement?
A. the client's policy manager domain
B. the client's group assignment
C. the policy's ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy's log entries
Answer: C

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NO.4 How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two event details are included in a standard Host Integrity log file? (Choose two.)
A. client Host Integrity status
B. name and state of each requirement
C. error messages
D. checked parameter
E. http 200 ok
Answer: AC

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NO.7 To verify that a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager has Symantec Network Access Control
functionality, what change to the Policies tab would an administrator see?
A. Host Integrity
B. Host Checking
C. Host Compliance
D. Host Inspection
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the first step to troubleshoot a custom requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. run the Host Integrity check several times
B. carefully examine the logic structure of the conditions
C. examine the Security Compliance Summary reports
D. check the properties of the endpoint from the Clients page
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host
Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answer: B

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NO.10 When choosing to run a script as an action in a custom requirement, which file format(s) can be used
to write the script?
A. only BAT or INI formats
B. only Pearl scripting
C. a custom file format with the .symc extension
D. any executable format recognized by Windows
Answer: D

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NO.11 Where are Symantec Network Access Control client packages placed on the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager?
A. Client/Policies
B. Admin/Install Packages
C. Policies/Policy Components
D. Clients/Install Packages
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether a product is running on a
client machine?
A. check that the service is running in the services snap-in
B. check that the service is running
C. check that the service has been stopped
D. check that the service has been registered
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which custom requirement utility allows an administrator the ability to choose an informative icon to
display to the end user?
A. run a script
B. log message
C. show message dialog
D. run a program
Answer: C

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NO.15 How many network interface(s) need to be configured for a Gateway Enforcer appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three types of data can be used with LAN Enforcers for the authentication sequence? (Choose
three.)
A. machine GUID
B. Policy ID
C. Host Integrity state
D. location awareness settings
E. user group
Answer: ACD

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*

NO.17 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether an antivirus product is
up-to-date on a client machine?
A. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the client
B. check the date of the associated signature data files(s) on the LiveUpdate server
C. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the IT database
D. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) in the policy manager
Answer: A

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NO.18 Where does an administrator view compliance log files?
A. from the specific client in the Network Access Control log
B. from the Policy Manager console in the Monitors page
C. from the Policy Manager console in the Admin page
D. from the Enforcer debug logs
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is AVScript.js used for?
A. client status
B. to write to the system log
C. to start the status monitor
D. Host Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.20 When is Host Integrity Checking enabled on a Symantec Network Access Control (SNAC) client?
A. when the Host Integrity policy is configured and distributed to the client
B. when the SNAC client is updated by LiveUpdate for content
C. during the heartbeat authentication process with the Enforcer
D. automatically when an upgrade to SNAC is made
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-94X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for UNIX(STS))
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 An administrator wants to use the Veritas Enterprise Administrator GUI to manage Veritas Storage
Foundation from a remote system.
Which two services must be running on the Veritas Storage Foundation server? (Select two.)
A. vxconfigd
B. vxservice
C. vea
D. vxsvc
E. vxsvcctrl
Answer: BD

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NO.2 What does storage virtualization create?
A. additional storage space
B. more processing power
C. an abstraction layer above physical storage
D. more virtual memory
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a primary advantage of the concatenation type of volume layout?
A. better free space utilization
B. improved performance
C. automatic load balancing
D. improved availability
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which scenario requires host-based storage virtualization?
A. A server needs access to network-attached storage.
B. Servers with different operating systems need to access a single disk array.
C. Multiple servers need to access a single disk array.
D. A server needs to mirror data across disk arrays from different vendors.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which component of Veritas Storage Foundation virtualizes storage?
A. File System
B. Volume Manager
C. Cluster Server
D. Volume Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Veritas Volume Manager daemon monitors changes to the disk group configuration data and
automatically saves to a file any configuration changes that occur?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxrelocd
C. vxconfigbackupd
D. vxiod
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which command should be used to lock a mounted vxfs file system?
A. fsck
B. mountlock
C. vxedit
D. fsadm
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of storage virtualization is Veritas Storage Foundation?
A. network-based
B. storage-based
C. host-based
D. direct-based
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which type of storage virtualization presents disks from multiple arrays and multiple vendors virtually
to one or more servers?
A. host-based
B. network-based
C. storage-based
D. web-based
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?
A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57
B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two features are available only with Storage Foundation Enterprise? (Select two.)
A. Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS)
B. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
C. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
D. Dynamic Multipathing (DMP)
E. ability to import LUN snapshots
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which two circumstances justify moving a disk group from Server A to Server B? (Select two.)
A. Server A is having hardware problems.
B. The volumes on Server B are redundant.
C. Server B offers better performance than Server A.
D. The volumes on Server A are concatenated.
E. Server B has no access to the SAN.
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write work loads so that
the performance of a file system can be analyzed?
A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator sets up site awareness on a host, and wants to verify that everything is set up
correctly.
Which command should they execute to break off one of the sites to verify the configuration?
A. vxbreak site
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach
Answer: C

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
What can the administrator determine about the layout of the volume described in the 'vxprint' output
provided in the exhibit?
A. The volume is striped across six disks.
B. The volume is mirrored with two plexes striped across three columns.
C. The volume is layered with two sub-volumes mirrored across three disks.
D. The volume is mirrored with three plexes striped across two columns.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-370
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 223 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Controlcolumn
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list
thatincludes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy
Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs. What should be done
to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.8 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes?(Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.10 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which component of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 includes Symantec NetBackup encryption?
A. master server
B. bare metal restore
C. client
D. EMM server
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which two components does OpsCenter Analytics replace? (Select two.)
A. backup reporter
B. open storage option
C. operations manager
D. shared storage option
E. Java console
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.4 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.5 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.8 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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